104TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY
State of Illinois
2025 and 2026
SB3171

 

Introduced 2/2/2026, by Sen. Neil Anderson

 

SYNOPSIS AS INTRODUCED:
 
See Index

    Repeals the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. Amends various Acts to make conforming changes. Effective immediately.


LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

 

 

A BILL FOR

 

SB3171LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    AN ACT concerning firearms.
 
2    Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois,
3represented in the General Assembly:
 
4    Section 3. The Open Meetings Act is amended by changing
5Section 2 as follows:
 
6    (5 ILCS 120/2)  (from Ch. 102, par. 42)
7    Sec. 2. Open meetings.
8    (a) Openness required. All meetings of public bodies shall
9be open to the public unless excepted in subsection (c) and
10closed in accordance with Section 2a.
11    (b) Construction of exceptions. The exceptions contained
12in subsection (c) are in derogation of the requirement that
13public bodies meet in the open, and therefore, the exceptions
14are to be strictly construed, extending only to subjects
15clearly within their scope. The exceptions authorize but do
16not require the holding of a closed meeting to discuss a
17subject included within an enumerated exception.
18    (c) Exceptions. A public body may hold closed meetings to
19consider the following subjects:
20        (1) The appointment, employment, compensation,
21    discipline, performance, or dismissal of specific
22    employees, specific individuals who serve as independent
23    contractors in a park, recreational, or educational

 

 

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1    setting, or specific volunteers of the public body or
2    legal counsel for the public body, including hearing
3    testimony on a complaint lodged against an employee, a
4    specific individual who serves as an independent
5    contractor in a park, recreational, or educational
6    setting, or a volunteer of the public body or against
7    legal counsel for the public body to determine its
8    validity. However, a meeting to consider an increase in
9    compensation to a specific employee of a public body that
10    is subject to the Local Government Wage Increase
11    Transparency Act may not be closed and shall be open to the
12    public and posted and held in accordance with this Act.
13        (2) Collective negotiating matters between the public
14    body and its employees or their representatives, or
15    deliberations concerning salary schedules for one or more
16    classes of employees.
17        (3) The selection of a person to fill a public office,
18    as defined in this Act, including a vacancy in a public
19    office, when the public body is given power to appoint
20    under law or ordinance, or the discipline, performance or
21    removal of the occupant of a public office, when the
22    public body is given power to remove the occupant under
23    law or ordinance.
24        (4) Evidence or testimony presented in open hearing,
25    or in closed hearing where specifically authorized by law,
26    to a quasi-adjudicative body, as defined in this Act,

 

 

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1    provided that the body prepares and makes available for
2    public inspection a written decision setting forth its
3    determinative reasoning.
4        (4.5) Evidence or testimony presented to a school
5    board regarding denial of admission to school events or
6    property pursuant to Section 24-24 of the School Code,
7    provided that the school board prepares and makes
8    available for public inspection a written decision setting
9    forth its determinative reasoning.
10        (5) The purchase or lease of real property for the use
11    of the public body, including meetings held for the
12    purpose of discussing whether a particular parcel should
13    be acquired.
14        (6) The setting of a price for sale or lease of
15    property owned by the public body.
16        (7) The sale or purchase of securities, investments,
17    or investment contracts. This exception shall not apply to
18    the investment of assets or income of funds deposited into
19    the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund.
20        (8) Security procedures, school building safety and
21    security, and the use of personnel and equipment to
22    respond to an actual, a threatened, or a reasonably
23    potential danger to the safety of employees, students,
24    staff, the public, or public property.
25        (9) Student disciplinary cases.
26        (10) The placement of individual students in special

 

 

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1    education programs and other matters relating to
2    individual students.
3        (11) Litigation, when an action against, affecting or
4    on behalf of the particular public body has been filed and
5    is pending before a court or administrative tribunal, or
6    when the public body finds that an action is probable or
7    imminent, in which case the basis for the finding shall be
8    recorded and entered into the minutes of the closed
9    meeting.
10        (12) The establishment of reserves or settlement of
11    claims as provided in the Local Governmental and
12    Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act, if otherwise the
13    disposition of a claim or potential claim might be
14    prejudiced, or the review or discussion of claims, loss or
15    risk management information, records, data, advice or
16    communications from or with respect to any insurer of the
17    public body or any intergovernmental risk management
18    association or self insurance pool of which the public
19    body is a member.
20        (13) Conciliation of complaints of discrimination in
21    the sale or rental of housing, when closed meetings are
22    authorized by the law or ordinance prescribing fair
23    housing practices and creating a commission or
24    administrative agency for their enforcement.
25        (14) Informant sources, the hiring or assignment of
26    undercover personnel or equipment, or ongoing, prior or

 

 

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1    future criminal investigations, when discussed by a public
2    body with criminal investigatory responsibilities.
3        (15) Professional ethics or performance when
4    considered by an advisory body appointed to advise a
5    licensing or regulatory agency on matters germane to the
6    advisory body's field of competence.
7        (16) Self evaluation, practices and procedures or
8    professional ethics, when meeting with a representative of
9    a statewide association of which the public body is a
10    member.
11        (17) The recruitment, credentialing, discipline or
12    formal peer review of physicians or other health care
13    professionals, or for the discussion of matters protected
14    under the federal Patient Safety and Quality Improvement
15    Act of 2005, and the regulations promulgated thereunder,
16    including 42 C.F.R. Part 3 (73 FR 70732), or the federal
17    Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of
18    1996, and the regulations promulgated thereunder,
19    including 45 C.F.R. Parts 160, 162, and 164, by a
20    hospital, or other institution providing medical care,
21    that is operated by the public body.
22        (18) Deliberations for decisions of the Prisoner
23    Review Board.
24        (19) Review or discussion of applications received
25    under the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures
26    Act.

 

 

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1        (20) The classification and discussion of matters
2    classified as confidential or continued confidential by
3    the State Government Suggestion Award Board.
4        (21) Discussion of minutes of meetings lawfully closed
5    under this Act, whether for purposes of approval by the
6    body of the minutes or semi-annual review of the minutes
7    as mandated by Section 2.06.
8        (22) Deliberations for decisions of the State
9    Emergency Medical Services Disciplinary Review Board.
10        (23) The operation by a municipality of a municipal
11    utility or the operation of a municipal power agency or
12    municipal natural gas agency when the discussion involves
13    (i) contracts relating to the purchase, sale, or delivery
14    of electricity or natural gas or (ii) the results or
15    conclusions of load forecast studies.
16        (24) Meetings of a residential health care facility
17    resident sexual assault and death review team or the
18    Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team
19    Act.
20        (25) Meetings of an independent team of experts under
21    Brian's Law.
22        (26) Meetings of a mortality review team appointed
23    under the Department of Juvenile Justice Mortality Review
24    Team Act.
25        (27) (Blank).
26        (28) Correspondence and records (i) that may not be

 

 

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1    disclosed under Section 11-9 of the Illinois Public Aid
2    Code or (ii) that pertain to appeals under Section 11-8 of
3    the Illinois Public Aid Code.
4        (29) Meetings between internal or external auditors
5    and governmental audit committees, finance committees, and
6    their equivalents, when the discussion involves internal
7    control weaknesses, identification of potential fraud risk
8    areas, known or suspected frauds, and fraud interviews
9    conducted in accordance with generally accepted auditing
10    standards of the United States of America.
11        (30) (Blank).
12        (31) Meetings and deliberations for decisions of the
13    Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under the Firearm
14    Concealed Carry Act.
15        (32) Meetings between the Regional Transportation
16    Authority Board and its Service Boards when the discussion
17    involves review by the Regional Transportation Authority
18    Board of employment contracts under Section 28d of the
19    Metropolitan Transit Authority Act and Sections 3A.18 and
20    3B.26 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act.
21        (33) Those meetings or portions of meetings of the
22    advisory committee and peer review subcommittee created
23    under Section 320 of the Illinois Controlled Substances
24    Act during which specific controlled substance prescriber,
25    dispenser, or patient information is discussed.
26        (34) Meetings of the Tax Increment Financing Reform

 

 

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1    Task Force under Section 2505-800 of the Department of
2    Revenue Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.
3        (35) Meetings of the group established to discuss
4    Medicaid capitation rates under Section 5-30.8 of the
5    Illinois Public Aid Code.
6        (36) Those deliberations or portions of deliberations
7    for decisions of the Illinois Gaming Board in which there
8    is discussed any of the following: (i) personal,
9    commercial, financial, or other information obtained from
10    any source that is privileged, proprietary, confidential,
11    or a trade secret; or (ii) information specifically
12    exempted from the disclosure by federal or State law.
13        (37) Deliberations for decisions of the Illinois Law
14    Enforcement Training Standards Board, the Certification
15    Review Panel, and the Illinois State Police Merit Board
16    regarding certification and decertification.
17        (38) Meetings of the Ad Hoc Statewide Domestic
18    Violence Fatality Review Committee of the Illinois
19    Criminal Justice Information Authority Board that occur in
20    closed executive session under subsection (d) of Section
21    35 of the Domestic Violence Fatality Review Act.
22        (39) Meetings of the regional review teams under
23    subsection (a) of Section 75 of the Domestic Violence
24    Fatality Review Act.
25        (40) Meetings of the Firearm Owner's Identification
26    Card Review Board under Section 10 of the Firearm Owners

 

 

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1    Identification Card Act before the effective date of this
2    amendatory Act of the 104th General Assembly.
3    (d) Definitions. For purposes of this Section:
4    "Employee" means a person employed by a public body whose
5relationship with the public body constitutes an
6employer-employee relationship under the usual common law
7rules, and who is not an independent contractor.
8    "Public office" means a position created by or under the
9Constitution or laws of this State, the occupant of which is
10charged with the exercise of some portion of the sovereign
11power of this State. The term "public office" shall include
12members of the public body, but it shall not include
13organizational positions filled by members thereof, whether
14established by law or by a public body itself, that exist to
15assist the body in the conduct of its business.
16    "Quasi-adjudicative body" means an administrative body
17charged by law or ordinance with the responsibility to conduct
18hearings, receive evidence or testimony and make
19determinations based thereon, but does not include local
20electoral boards when such bodies are considering petition
21challenges.
22    (e) Final action. No final action may be taken at a closed
23meeting. Final action shall be preceded by a public recital of
24the nature of the matter being considered and other
25information that will inform the public of the business being
26conducted.

 

 

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1(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-520, eff. 8-20-21;
2102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-311, eff.
37-28-23; 103-626, eff. 1-1-25.)
 
4    Section 5. The Freedom of Information Act is amended by
5changing Section 7.5 as follows:
 
6    (5 ILCS 140/7.5)
7    (Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 104-441 and
8104-457)
9    Sec. 7.5. Statutory exemptions. To the extent provided for
10by the statutes referenced below, the following shall be
11exempt from inspection and copying:
12        (a) All information determined to be confidential
13    under Section 4002 of the Technology Advancement and
14    Development Act.
15        (b) Library circulation and order records identifying
16    library users with specific materials under the Library
17    Records Confidentiality Act.
18        (c) Applications, related documents, and medical
19    records received by the Experimental Organ Transplantation
20    Procedures Board and any and all documents or other
21    records prepared by the Experimental Organ Transplantation
22    Procedures Board or its staff relating to applications it
23    has received.
24        (d) Information and records held by the Department of

 

 

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1    Public Health and its authorized representatives relating
2    to known or suspected cases of sexually transmitted
3    infection or any information the disclosure of which is
4    restricted under the Illinois Sexually Transmitted
5    Infection Control Act.
6        (e) Information the disclosure of which is exempted
7    under Section 30 of the Radon Industry Licensing Act.
8        (f) Firm performance evaluations under Section 55 of
9    the Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying
10    Qualifications Based Selection Act.
11        (g) Information the disclosure of which is restricted
12    and exempted under Section 50 of the Illinois Prepaid
13    Tuition Act.
14        (h) Information the disclosure of which is exempted
15    under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act, and
16    records of any lawfully created State or local inspector
17    general's office that would be exempt if created or
18    obtained by an Executive Inspector General's office under
19    that Act.
20        (i) Information contained in a local emergency energy
21    plan submitted to a municipality in accordance with a
22    local emergency energy plan ordinance that is adopted
23    under Section 11-21.5-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code.
24        (j) Information and data concerning the distribution
25    of surcharge moneys collected and remitted by carriers
26    under the Emergency Telephone System Act.

 

 

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1        (k) Law enforcement officer identification information
2    or driver identification information compiled by a law
3    enforcement agency or the Department of Transportation
4    under Section 11-212 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.
5        (l) Records and information provided to a residential
6    health care facility resident sexual assault and death
7    review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse
8    Prevention Review Team Act.
9        (m) Information provided to the predatory lending
10    database created pursuant to Article 3 of the Residential
11    Real Property Disclosure Act, except to the extent
12    authorized under that Article.
13        (n) Defense budgets and petitions for certification of
14    compensation and expenses for court appointed trial
15    counsel as provided under Sections 10 and 15 of the
16    Capital Crimes Litigation Act (repealed). This subsection
17    (n) shall apply until the conclusion of the trial of the
18    case, even if the prosecution chooses not to pursue the
19    death penalty prior to trial or sentencing.
20        (o) Information that is prohibited from being
21    disclosed under Section 4 of the Illinois Health and
22    Hazardous Substances Registry Act.
23        (p) Security portions of system safety program plans,
24    investigation reports, surveys, schedules, lists, data, or
25    information compiled, collected, or prepared by or for the
26    Department of Transportation under Sections 2705-300 and

 

 

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1    2705-616 of the Department of Transportation Law of the
2    Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the Regional
3    Transportation Authority under Section 2.11 of the
4    Regional Transportation Authority Act, or the St. Clair
5    County Transit District under the Bi-State Transit Safety
6    Act (repealed).
7        (q) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the
8    Personnel Record Review Act.
9        (r) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the
10    Illinois School Student Records Act.
11        (s) Information the disclosure of which is restricted
12    under Section 5-108 of the Public Utilities Act.
13        (t) (Blank).
14        (u) Records and information provided to an independent
15    team of experts under the Developmental Disability and
16    Mental Health Safety Act (also known as Brian's Law).
17        (v) Names and information of people who have applied
18    for or received Firearm Owner's Identification Cards under
19    the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act before the
20    effective date of this amendatory Act of the 104th General
21    Assembly or applied for or received a concealed carry
22    license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, unless
23    otherwise authorized by the Firearm Concealed Carry Act;
24    and databases under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act,
25    records of the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board
26    under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, and law enforcement

 

 

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1    agency objections under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.
2        (v-5) Records of the Firearm Owner's Identification
3    Card Review Board that were are exempted from disclosure
4    under Section 10 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card
5    Act before the effective date of this amendatory Act of
6    the 104th General Assembly.
7        (w) Personally identifiable information which is
8    exempted from disclosure under subsection (g) of Section
9    19.1 of the Toll Highway Act.
10        (x) Information which is exempted from disclosure
11    under Section 5-1014.3 of the Counties Code or Section
12    8-11-21 of the Illinois Municipal Code.
13        (y) Confidential information under the Adult
14    Protective Services Act and its predecessor enabling
15    statute, the Elder Abuse and Neglect Act, including
16    information about the identity and administrative finding
17    against any caregiver of a verified and substantiated
18    decision of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of
19    an eligible adult maintained in the Registry established
20    under Section 7.5 of the Adult Protective Services Act.
21        (z) Records and information provided to a fatality
22    review team or the Illinois Fatality Review Team Advisory
23    Council under Section 15 of the Adult Protective Services
24    Act.
25        (aa) Information which is exempted from disclosure
26    under Section 2.37 of the Wildlife Code.

 

 

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1        (bb) Information which is or was prohibited from
2    disclosure by the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.
3        (cc) Recordings made under the Law Enforcement
4    Officer-Worn Body Camera Act, except to the extent
5    authorized under that Act.
6        (dd) Information that is prohibited from being
7    disclosed under Section 45 of the Condominium and Common
8    Interest Community Ombudsperson Act.
9        (ee) Information that is exempted from disclosure
10    under Section 30.1 of the Pharmacy Practice Act.
11        (ff) Information that is exempted from disclosure
12    under the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act.
13        (gg) Information that is prohibited from being
14    disclosed under Section 7-603.5 of the Illinois Vehicle
15    Code.
16        (hh) Records that are exempt from disclosure under
17    Section 1A-16.7 of the Election Code.
18        (ii) Information which is exempted from disclosure
19    under Section 2505-800 of the Department of Revenue Law of
20    the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.
21        (jj) Information and reports that are required to be
22    submitted to the Department of Labor by registering day
23    and temporary labor service agencies but are exempt from
24    disclosure under subsection (a-1) of Section 45 of the Day
25    and Temporary Labor Services Act.
26        (kk) Information prohibited from disclosure under the

 

 

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1    Seizure and Forfeiture Reporting Act.
2        (ll) Information the disclosure of which is restricted
3    and exempted under Section 5-30.8 of the Illinois Public
4    Aid Code.
5        (mm) Records that are exempt from disclosure under
6    Section 4.2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act.
7        (nn) Information that is exempt from disclosure under
8    Section 70 of the Higher Education Student Assistance Act.
9        (oo) Communications, notes, records, and reports
10    arising out of a peer support counseling session
11    prohibited from disclosure under the First Responders
12    Suicide Prevention Act.
13        (pp) Names and all identifying information relating to
14    an employee of an emergency services provider or law
15    enforcement agency under the First Responders Suicide
16    Prevention Act.
17        (qq) Information and records held by the Department of
18    Public Health and its authorized representatives collected
19    under the Reproductive Health Act.
20        (rr) Information that is exempt from disclosure under
21    the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act.
22        (ss) Data reported by an employer to the Department of
23    Human Rights pursuant to Section 2-108 of the Illinois
24    Human Rights Act.
25        (tt) Recordings made under the Children's Advocacy
26    Center Act, except to the extent authorized under that

 

 

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1    Act.
2        (uu) Information that is exempt from disclosure under
3    Section 50 of the Sexual Assault Evidence Submission Act.
4        (vv) Information that is exempt from disclosure under
5    subsections (f) and (j) of Section 5-36 of the Illinois
6    Public Aid Code.
7        (ww) Information that is exempt from disclosure under
8    Section 16.8 of the State Treasurer Act.
9        (xx) Information that is exempt from disclosure or
10    information that shall not be made public under the
11    Illinois Insurance Code.
12        (yy) Information prohibited from being disclosed under
13    the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act.
14        (zz) Information prohibited from being disclosed under
15    the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act.
16        (aaa) Information prohibited from being disclosed
17    under Section 1-167 of the Illinois Pension Code.
18        (bbb) Information that is prohibited from disclosure
19    by the Illinois Police Training Act and the Illinois State
20    Police Act.
21        (ccc) Records exempt from disclosure under Section
22    2605-304 of the Illinois State Police Law of the Civil
23    Administrative Code of Illinois.
24        (ddd) Information prohibited from being disclosed
25    under Section 35 of the Address Confidentiality for
26    Victims of Domestic Violence, Sexual Assault, Human

 

 

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1    Trafficking, or Stalking Act.
2        (eee) Information prohibited from being disclosed
3    under subsection (b) of Section 75 of the Domestic
4    Violence Fatality Review Act.
5        (fff) Images from cameras under the Expressway Camera
6    Act and all automated license plate reader (ALPR)
7    information used and collected by the Illinois State
8    Police. "ALPR information" means information gathered by
9    an ALPR or created from the analysis of data generated by
10    an ALPR. This subsection (fff) is inoperative on and after
11    July 1, 2028.
12        (ggg) Information prohibited from disclosure under
13    paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of Section 14 of the Nurse
14    Agency Licensing Act.
15        (hhh) Information submitted to the Illinois State
16    Police in an affidavit or application for an assault
17    weapon endorsement, assault weapon attachment endorsement,
18    .50 caliber rifle endorsement, or .50 caliber cartridge
19    endorsement under the Firearm Owners Identification Card
20    Act.
21        (iii) Data exempt from disclosure under Section 50 of
22    the School Safety Drill Act.
23        (jjj) Information exempt from disclosure under Section
24    30 of the Insurance Data Security Law.
25        (kkk) Confidential business information prohibited
26    from disclosure under Section 45 of the Paint Stewardship

 

 

SB3171- 19 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    Act.
2        (lll) Data exempt from disclosure under Section
3    2-3.196 of the School Code.
4        (mmm) Information prohibited from being disclosed
5    under subsection (e) of Section 1-129 of the Illinois
6    Power Agency Act.
7        (nnn) Materials received by the Department of Commerce
8    and Economic Opportunity that are confidential under the
9    Music and Musicians Tax Credit and Jobs Act.
10        (ooo) Data or information provided pursuant to Section
11    20 of the Statewide Recycling Needs and Assessment Act.
12        (ppp) Information that is exempt from disclosure under
13    Section 28-11 of the Lawful Health Care Activity Act.
14        (qqq) Information that is exempt from disclosure under
15    Section 7-101 of the Illinois Human Rights Act.
16        (rrr) Information prohibited from being disclosed
17    under Section 4-2 of the Uniform Money Transmission
18    Modernization Act.
19        (sss) Information exempt from disclosure under Section
20    40 of the Student-Athlete Endorsement Rights Act.
21        (ttt) Audio recordings made under Section 30 of the
22    Illinois State Police Act, except to the extent authorized
23    under that Section.
24        (uuu) Information prohibited from being disclosed
25    under Section 30-5 of the Digital Assets Regulation Act.
26(Source: P.A. 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; 103-34, eff. 6-9-23;

 

 

SB3171- 20 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1103-142, eff. 1-1-24; 103-372, eff. 1-1-24; 103-472, eff.
28-1-24; 103-508, eff. 8-4-23; 103-580, eff. 12-8-23; 103-592,
3eff. 6-7-24; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-636, eff. 7-1-24;
4103-724, eff. 1-1-25; 103-786, eff. 8-7-24; 103-859, eff.
58-9-24; 103-991, eff. 8-9-24; 103-1049, eff. 8-9-24; 103-1081,
6eff. 3-21-25; 104-10, eff. 6-16-25; 104-18, eff. 6-30-25;
7104-417, eff. 8-15-25; 104-428, eff. 8-18-25; revised
89-10-25.)
 
9    (Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 104-457 but
10before 104-441)
11    Sec. 7.5. Statutory exemptions. To the extent provided for
12by the statutes referenced below, the following shall be
13exempt from inspection and copying:
14        (a) All information determined to be confidential
15    under Section 4002 of the Technology Advancement and
16    Development Act.
17        (b) Library circulation and order records identifying
18    library users with specific materials under the Library
19    Records Confidentiality Act.
20        (c) Applications, related documents, and medical
21    records received by the Experimental Organ Transplantation
22    Procedures Board and any and all documents or other
23    records prepared by the Experimental Organ Transplantation
24    Procedures Board or its staff relating to applications it
25    has received.

 

 

SB3171- 21 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        (d) Information and records held by the Department of
2    Public Health and its authorized representatives relating
3    to known or suspected cases of sexually transmitted
4    infection or any information the disclosure of which is
5    restricted under the Illinois Sexually Transmitted
6    Infection Control Act.
7        (e) Information the disclosure of which is exempted
8    under Section 30 of the Radon Industry Licensing Act.
9        (f) Firm performance evaluations under Section 55 of
10    the Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying
11    Qualifications Based Selection Act.
12        (g) Information the disclosure of which is restricted
13    and exempted under Section 50 of the Illinois Prepaid
14    Tuition Act.
15        (h) Information the disclosure of which is exempted
16    under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act, and
17    records of any lawfully created State or local inspector
18    general's office that would be exempt if created or
19    obtained by an Executive Inspector General's office under
20    that Act.
21        (i) Information contained in a local emergency energy
22    plan submitted to a municipality in accordance with a
23    local emergency energy plan ordinance that is adopted
24    under Section 11-21.5-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code.
25        (j) Information and data concerning the distribution
26    of surcharge moneys collected and remitted by carriers

 

 

SB3171- 22 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    under the Emergency Telephone System Act.
2        (k) Law enforcement officer identification information
3    or driver identification information compiled by a law
4    enforcement agency or the Department of Transportation
5    under Section 11-212 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.
6        (l) Records and information provided to a residential
7    health care facility resident sexual assault and death
8    review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse
9    Prevention Review Team Act.
10        (m) Information provided to the predatory lending
11    database created pursuant to Article 3 of the Residential
12    Real Property Disclosure Act, except to the extent
13    authorized under that Article.
14        (n) Defense budgets and petitions for certification of
15    compensation and expenses for court appointed trial
16    counsel as provided under Sections 10 and 15 of the
17    Capital Crimes Litigation Act (repealed). This subsection
18    (n) shall apply until the conclusion of the trial of the
19    case, even if the prosecution chooses not to pursue the
20    death penalty prior to trial or sentencing.
21        (o) Information that is prohibited from being
22    disclosed under Section 4 of the Illinois Health and
23    Hazardous Substances Registry Act.
24        (p) Security portions of system safety program plans,
25    investigation reports, surveys, schedules, lists, data, or
26    information compiled, collected, or prepared by or for the

 

 

SB3171- 23 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    Department of Transportation under Sections 2705-300 and
2    2705-616 of the Department of Transportation Law of the
3    Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the Northern
4    Illinois Transit Authority under Section 2.11 of the
5    Northern Illinois Transit Authority Act, or the St. Clair
6    County Transit District under the Bi-State Transit Safety
7    Act (repealed).
8        (q) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the
9    Personnel Record Review Act.
10        (r) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the
11    Illinois School Student Records Act.
12        (s) Information the disclosure of which is restricted
13    under Section 5-108 of the Public Utilities Act.
14        (t) (Blank).
15        (u) Records and information provided to an independent
16    team of experts under the Developmental Disability and
17    Mental Health Safety Act (also known as Brian's
18    Law).         
19        (v) Names and information of people who have applied
20    for or received Firearm Owner's Identification Cards under
21    the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act before the
22    effective date of this amendatory Act of the 104th General
23    Assembly or applied for or received a concealed carry
24    license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, unless
25    otherwise authorized by the Firearm Concealed Carry Act;
26    and databases under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act,

 

 

SB3171- 24 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    records of the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board
2    under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, and law enforcement
3    agency objections under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.
4        (v-5) Records of the Firearm Owner's Identification
5    Card Review Board that were are exempted from disclosure
6    under Section 10 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card
7    Act before the effective date of this amendatory Act of
8    the 104th General Assembly.
9        (w) Personally identifiable information which is
10    exempted from disclosure under subsection (g) of Section
11    19.1 of the Toll Highway Act.
12        (x) Information which is exempted from disclosure
13    under Section 5-1014.3 of the Counties Code or Section
14    8-11-21 of the Illinois Municipal Code.
15        (y) Confidential information under the Adult
16    Protective Services Act and its predecessor enabling
17    statute, the Elder Abuse and Neglect Act, including
18    information about the identity and administrative finding
19    against any caregiver of a verified and substantiated
20    decision of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of
21    an eligible adult maintained in the Registry established
22    under Section 7.5 of the Adult Protective Services Act.
23        (z) Records and information provided to a fatality
24    review team or the Illinois Fatality Review Team Advisory
25    Council under Section 15 of the Adult Protective Services
26    Act.

 

 

SB3171- 25 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        (aa) Information which is exempted from disclosure
2    under Section 2.37 of the Wildlife Code.
3        (bb) Information which is or was prohibited from
4    disclosure by the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.
5        (cc) Recordings made under the Law Enforcement
6    Officer-Worn Body Camera Act, except to the extent
7    authorized under that Act.
8        (dd) Information that is prohibited from being
9    disclosed under Section 45 of the Condominium and Common
10    Interest Community Ombudsperson Act.
11        (ee) Information that is exempted from disclosure
12    under Section 30.1 of the Pharmacy Practice Act.
13        (ff) Information that is exempted from disclosure
14    under the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act.
15        (gg) Information that is prohibited from being
16    disclosed under Section 7-603.5 of the Illinois Vehicle
17    Code.
18        (hh) Records that are exempt from disclosure under
19    Section 1A-16.7 of the Election Code.
20        (ii) Information which is exempted from disclosure
21    under Section 2505-800 of the Department of Revenue Law of
22    the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.
23        (jj) Information and reports that are required to be
24    submitted to the Department of Labor by registering day
25    and temporary labor service agencies but are exempt from
26    disclosure under subsection (a-1) of Section 45 of the Day

 

 

SB3171- 26 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    and Temporary Labor Services Act.
2        (kk) Information prohibited from disclosure under the
3    Seizure and Forfeiture Reporting Act.
4        (ll) Information the disclosure of which is restricted
5    and exempted under Section 5-30.8 of the Illinois Public
6    Aid Code.
7        (mm) Records that are exempt from disclosure under
8    Section 4.2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act.
9        (nn) Information that is exempt from disclosure under
10    Section 70 of the Higher Education Student Assistance Act.
11        (oo) Communications, notes, records, and reports
12    arising out of a peer support counseling session
13    prohibited from disclosure under the First Responders
14    Suicide Prevention Act.
15        (pp) Names and all identifying information relating to
16    an employee of an emergency services provider or law
17    enforcement agency under the First Responders Suicide
18    Prevention Act.
19        (qq) Information and records held by the Department of
20    Public Health and its authorized representatives collected
21    under the Reproductive Health Act.
22        (rr) Information that is exempt from disclosure under
23    the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act.
24        (ss) Data reported by an employer to the Department of
25    Human Rights pursuant to Section 2-108 of the Illinois
26    Human Rights Act.

 

 

SB3171- 27 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        (tt) Recordings made under the Children's Advocacy
2    Center Act, except to the extent authorized under that
3    Act.
4        (uu) Information that is exempt from disclosure under
5    Section 50 of the Sexual Assault Evidence Submission Act.
6        (vv) Information that is exempt from disclosure under
7    subsections (f) and (j) of Section 5-36 of the Illinois
8    Public Aid Code.
9        (ww) Information that is exempt from disclosure under
10    Section 16.8 of the State Treasurer Act.
11        (xx) Information that is exempt from disclosure or
12    information that shall not be made public under the
13    Illinois Insurance Code.
14        (yy) Information prohibited from being disclosed under
15    the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act.
16        (zz) Information prohibited from being disclosed under
17    the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act.
18        (aaa) Information prohibited from being disclosed
19    under Section 1-167 of the Illinois Pension Code.
20        (bbb) Information that is prohibited from disclosure
21    by the Illinois Police Training Act and the Illinois State
22    Police Act.
23        (ccc) Records exempt from disclosure under Section
24    2605-304 of the Illinois State Police Law of the Civil
25    Administrative Code of Illinois.
26        (ddd) Information prohibited from being disclosed

 

 

SB3171- 28 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    under Section 35 of the Address Confidentiality for
2    Victims of Domestic Violence, Sexual Assault, Human
3    Trafficking, or Stalking Act.
4        (eee) Information prohibited from being disclosed
5    under subsection (b) of Section 75 of the Domestic
6    Violence Fatality Review Act.
7        (fff) Images from cameras under the Expressway Camera
8    Act and all automated license plate reader (ALPR)
9    information used and collected by the Illinois State
10    Police. "ALPR information" means information gathered by
11    an ALPR or created from the analysis of data generated by
12    an ALPR. This subsection (fff) is inoperative on and after
13    July 1, 2028.
14        (ggg) Information prohibited from disclosure under
15    paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of Section 14 of the Nurse
16    Agency Licensing Act.
17        (hhh) Information submitted to the Illinois State
18    Police in an affidavit or application for an assault
19    weapon endorsement, assault weapon attachment endorsement,
20    .50 caliber rifle endorsement, or .50 caliber cartridge
21    endorsement under the Firearm Owners Identification Card
22    Act.
23        (iii) Data exempt from disclosure under Section 50 of
24    the School Safety Drill Act.
25        (jjj) Information exempt from disclosure under Section
26    30 of the Insurance Data Security Law.

 

 

SB3171- 29 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        (kkk) Confidential business information prohibited
2    from disclosure under Section 45 of the Paint Stewardship
3    Act.
4        (lll) Data exempt from disclosure under Section
5    2-3.196 of the School Code.
6        (mmm) Information prohibited from being disclosed
7    under subsection (e) of Section 1-129 of the Illinois
8    Power Agency Act.
9        (nnn) Materials received by the Department of Commerce
10    and Economic Opportunity that are confidential under the
11    Music and Musicians Tax Credit and Jobs Act.
12        (ooo) Data or information provided pursuant to Section
13    20 of the Statewide Recycling Needs and Assessment Act.
14        (ppp) Information that is exempt from disclosure under
15    Section 28-11 of the Lawful Health Care Activity Act.
16        (qqq) Information that is exempt from disclosure under
17    Section 7-101 of the Illinois Human Rights Act.
18        (rrr) Information prohibited from being disclosed
19    under Section 4-2 of the Uniform Money Transmission
20    Modernization Act.
21        (sss) Information exempt from disclosure under Section
22    40 of the Student-Athlete Endorsement Rights Act.
23        (ttt) Audio recordings made under Section 30 of the
24    Illinois State Police Act, except to the extent authorized
25    under that Section.
26        (uuu) Information prohibited from being disclosed

 

 

SB3171- 30 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    under Section 30-5 of the Digital Assets Regulation Act.
2(Source: P.A. 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; 103-34, eff. 6-9-23;
3103-142, eff. 1-1-24; 103-372, eff. 1-1-24; 103-472, eff.
48-1-24; 103-508, eff. 8-4-23; 103-580, eff. 12-8-23; 103-592,
5eff. 6-7-24; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-636, eff. 7-1-24;
6103-724, eff. 1-1-25; 103-786, eff. 8-7-24; 103-859, eff.
78-9-24; 103-991, eff. 8-9-24; 103-1049, eff. 8-9-24; 103-1081,
8eff. 3-21-25; 104-10, eff. 6-16-25; 104-18, eff. 6-30-25;
9104-417, eff. 8-15-25; 104-428, eff. 8-18-25; 104-457, eff.
106-1-26; revised 1-7-26.)
 
11    (Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 104-441)
12    Sec. 7.5. Statutory exemptions. To the extent provided for
13by the statutes referenced below, the following shall be
14exempt from inspection and copying:
15        (a) All information determined to be confidential
16    under Section 4002 of the Technology Advancement and
17    Development Act.
18        (b) Library circulation and order records identifying
19    library users with specific materials under the Library
20    Records Confidentiality Act.
21        (c) Applications, related documents, and medical
22    records received by the Experimental Organ Transplantation
23    Procedures Board and any and all documents or other
24    records prepared by the Experimental Organ Transplantation
25    Procedures Board or its staff relating to applications it

 

 

SB3171- 31 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    has received.
2        (d) Information and records held by the Department of
3    Public Health and its authorized representatives relating
4    to known or suspected cases of sexually transmitted
5    infection or any information the disclosure of which is
6    restricted under the Illinois Sexually Transmitted
7    Infection Control Act.
8        (e) Information the disclosure of which is exempted
9    under Section 30 of the Radon Industry Licensing Act.
10        (f) Firm performance evaluations under Section 55 of
11    the Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying
12    Qualifications Based Selection Act.
13        (g) Information the disclosure of which is restricted
14    and exempted under Section 50 of the Illinois Prepaid
15    Tuition Act.
16        (h) Information the disclosure of which is exempted
17    under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act, and
18    records of any lawfully created State or local inspector
19    general's office that would be exempt if created or
20    obtained by an Executive Inspector General's office under
21    that Act.
22        (i) Information contained in a local emergency energy
23    plan submitted to a municipality in accordance with a
24    local emergency energy plan ordinance that is adopted
25    under Section 11-21.5-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code.
26        (j) Information and data concerning the distribution

 

 

SB3171- 32 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    of surcharge moneys collected and remitted by carriers
2    under the Emergency Telephone System Act.
3        (k) Law enforcement officer identification information
4    or driver identification information compiled by a law
5    enforcement agency or the Department of Transportation
6    under Section 11-212 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.
7        (l) Records and information provided to a residential
8    health care facility resident sexual assault and death
9    review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse
10    Prevention Review Team Act.
11        (m) Information provided to the predatory lending
12    database created pursuant to Article 3 of the Residential
13    Real Property Disclosure Act, except to the extent
14    authorized under that Article.
15        (n) Defense budgets and petitions for certification of
16    compensation and expenses for court appointed trial
17    counsel as provided under Sections 10 and 15 of the
18    Capital Crimes Litigation Act (repealed). This subsection
19    (n) shall apply until the conclusion of the trial of the
20    case, even if the prosecution chooses not to pursue the
21    death penalty prior to trial or sentencing.
22        (o) Information that is prohibited from being
23    disclosed under Section 4 of the Illinois Health and
24    Hazardous Substances Registry Act.
25        (p) Security portions of system safety program plans,
26    investigation reports, surveys, schedules, lists, data, or

 

 

SB3171- 33 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    information compiled, collected, or prepared by or for the
2    Department of Transportation under Sections 2705-300 and
3    2705-616 of the Department of Transportation Law of the
4    Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the Northern
5    Illinois Transit Authority under Section 2.11 of the
6    Northern Illinois Transit Authority Act, or the St. Clair
7    County Transit District under the Bi-State Transit Safety
8    Act (repealed).
9        (q) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the
10    Personnel Record Review Act.
11        (r) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the
12    Illinois School Student Records Act.
13        (s) Information the disclosure of which is restricted
14    under Section 5-108 of the Public Utilities Act.
15        (t) (Blank).
16        (u) Records and information provided to an independent
17    team of experts under the Developmental Disability and
18    Mental Health Safety Act (also known as Brian's Law).
19        (v) Names and information of people who have applied
20    for or received Firearm Owner's Identification Cards under
21    the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act before the
22    effective date of this amendatory Act of 104th General
23    Assembly or applied for or received a concealed carry
24    license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, unless
25    otherwise authorized by the Firearm Concealed Carry Act;
26    and databases under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act,

 

 

SB3171- 34 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    records of the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board
2    under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, and law enforcement
3    agency objections under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.
4        (v-5) Records of the Firearm Owner's Identification
5    Card Review Board that were are exempted from disclosure
6    under Section 10 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card
7    Act before the effective date of this amendatory Act of
8    the 104th General Assembly.
9        (w) Personally identifiable information which is
10    exempted from disclosure under subsection (g) of Section
11    19.1 of the Toll Highway Act.
12        (x) Information which is exempted from disclosure
13    under Section 5-1014.3 of the Counties Code or Section
14    8-11-21 of the Illinois Municipal Code.
15        (y) Confidential information under the Adult
16    Protective Services Act and its predecessor enabling
17    statute, the Elder Abuse and Neglect Act, including
18    information about the identity and administrative finding
19    against any caregiver of a verified and substantiated
20    decision of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of
21    an eligible adult maintained in the Registry established
22    under Section 7.5 of the Adult Protective Services Act.
23        (z) Records and information provided to a fatality
24    review team or the Illinois Fatality Review Team Advisory
25    Council under Section 15 of the Adult Protective Services
26    Act.

 

 

SB3171- 35 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        (aa) Information which is exempted from disclosure
2    under Section 2.37 of the Wildlife Code.
3        (bb) Information which is or was prohibited from
4    disclosure by the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.
5        (cc) Recordings made under the Law Enforcement
6    Officer-Worn Body Camera Act, except to the extent
7    authorized under that Act.
8        (dd) Information that is prohibited from being
9    disclosed under Section 45 of the Condominium and Common
10    Interest Community Ombudsperson Act.
11        (ee) Information that is exempted from disclosure
12    under Section 30.1 of the Pharmacy Practice Act.
13        (ff) Information that is exempted from disclosure
14    under the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act.
15        (gg) Information that is prohibited from being
16    disclosed under Section 7-603.5 of the Illinois Vehicle
17    Code.
18        (hh) Records that are exempt from disclosure under
19    Section 1A-16.7 of the Election Code.
20        (ii) Information which is exempted from disclosure
21    under Section 2505-800 of the Department of Revenue Law of
22    the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.
23        (jj) Information and reports that are required to be
24    submitted to the Department of Labor by registering day
25    and temporary labor service agencies but are exempt from
26    disclosure under subsection (a-1) of Section 45 of the Day

 

 

SB3171- 36 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    and Temporary Labor Services Act.
2        (kk) Information prohibited from disclosure under the
3    Seizure and Forfeiture Reporting Act.
4        (ll) Information the disclosure of which is restricted
5    and exempted under Section 5-30.8 of the Illinois Public
6    Aid Code.
7        (mm) Records that are exempt from disclosure under
8    Section 4.2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act.
9        (nn) Information that is exempt from disclosure under
10    Section 70 of the Higher Education Student Assistance Act.
11        (oo) Communications, notes, records, and reports
12    arising out of a peer support counseling session
13    prohibited from disclosure under the First Responders
14    Suicide Prevention Act.
15        (pp) Names and all identifying information relating to
16    an employee of an emergency services provider or law
17    enforcement agency under the First Responders Suicide
18    Prevention Act.
19        (qq) Information and records held by the Department of
20    Public Health and its authorized representatives collected
21    under the Reproductive Health Act.
22        (rr) Information that is exempt from disclosure under
23    the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act.
24        (ss) Data reported by an employer to the Department of
25    Human Rights pursuant to Section 2-108 of the Illinois
26    Human Rights Act.

 

 

SB3171- 37 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        (tt) Recordings made under the Children's Advocacy
2    Center Act, except to the extent authorized under that
3    Act.
4        (uu) Information that is exempt from disclosure under
5    Section 50 of the Sexual Assault Evidence Submission Act.
6        (vv) Information that is exempt from disclosure under
7    subsections (f) and (j) of Section 5-36 of the Illinois
8    Public Aid Code.
9        (ww) Information that is exempt from disclosure under
10    Section 16.8 of the State Treasurer Act.
11        (xx) Information that is exempt from disclosure or
12    information that shall not be made public under the
13    Illinois Insurance Code.
14        (yy) Information prohibited from being disclosed under
15    the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act.
16        (zz) Information prohibited from being disclosed under
17    the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act.
18        (aaa) Information prohibited from being disclosed
19    under Section 1-167 of the Illinois Pension Code.
20        (bbb) Information that is prohibited from disclosure
21    by the Illinois Police Training Act and the Illinois State
22    Police Act.
23        (ccc) Records exempt from disclosure under Section
24    2605-304 of the Illinois State Police Law of the Civil
25    Administrative Code of Illinois.
26        (ddd) Information prohibited from being disclosed

 

 

SB3171- 38 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    under Section 35 of the Address Confidentiality for
2    Victims of Domestic Violence, Sexual Assault, Human
3    Trafficking, or Stalking Act.
4        (eee) Information prohibited from being disclosed
5    under subsection (b) of Section 75 of the Domestic
6    Violence Fatality Review Act.
7        (fff) Images from cameras under the Expressway Camera
8    Act and all automated license plate reader (ALPR)
9    information used and collected by the Illinois State
10    Police. "ALPR information" means information gathered by
11    an ALPR or created from the analysis of data generated by
12    an ALPR. This subsection (fff) is inoperative on and after
13    July 1, 2028.
14        (ggg) Information prohibited from disclosure under
15    paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of Section 14 of the Nurse
16    Agency Licensing Act.
17        (hhh) Information submitted to the Illinois State
18    Police in an affidavit or application for an assault
19    weapon endorsement, assault weapon attachment endorsement,
20    .50 caliber rifle endorsement, or .50 caliber cartridge
21    endorsement under the Firearm Owners Identification Card
22    Act.
23        (iii) Data exempt from disclosure under Section 50 of
24    the School Safety Drill Act.
25        (jjj) Information exempt from disclosure under Section
26    30 of the Insurance Data Security Law.

 

 

SB3171- 39 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        (kkk) Confidential business information prohibited
2    from disclosure under Section 45 of the Paint Stewardship
3    Act.
4        (lll) Data exempt from disclosure under Section
5    2-3.196 of the School Code.
6        (mmm) Information prohibited from being disclosed
7    under subsection (e) of Section 1-129 of the Illinois
8    Power Agency Act.
9        (nnn) Materials received by the Department of Commerce
10    and Economic Opportunity that are confidential under the
11    Music and Musicians Tax Credit and Jobs Act.
12        (ooo) Data or information provided pursuant to Section
13    20 of the Statewide Recycling Needs and Assessment Act.
14        (ppp) Information that is exempt from disclosure under
15    Section 28-11 of the Lawful Health Care Activity Act.
16        (qqq) Information that is exempt from disclosure under
17    Section 7-101 of the Illinois Human Rights Act.
18        (rrr) Information prohibited from being disclosed
19    under Section 4-2 of the Uniform Money Transmission
20    Modernization Act.
21        (sss) Information exempt from disclosure under Section
22    40 of the Student-Athlete Endorsement Rights Act.
23        (ttt) Audio recordings made under Section 30 of the
24    Illinois State Police Act, except to the extent authorized
25    under that Section.
26        (uuu) Information prohibited from being disclosed

 

 

SB3171- 40 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    under Section 30-5 of the Digital Assets Regulation Act.
2        (vvv) (uuu) Information exempt from disclosure under
3    Section 70 of the End-of-Life Options for Terminally Ill
4    Patients Act.
5(Source: P.A. 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; 103-34, eff. 6-9-23;
6103-142, eff. 1-1-24; 103-372, eff. 1-1-24; 103-472, eff.
78-1-24; 103-508, eff. 8-4-23; 103-580, eff. 12-8-23; 103-592,
8eff. 6-7-24; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-636, eff. 7-1-24;
9103-724, eff. 1-1-25; 103-786, eff. 8-7-24; 103-859, eff.
108-9-24; 103-991, eff. 8-9-24; 103-1049, eff. 8-9-24; 103-1081,
11eff. 3-21-25; 104-10, eff. 6-16-25; 104-18, eff. 6-30-25;
12104-417, eff. 8-15-25; 104-428, eff. 8-18-25; 104-441, eff.
139-12-26; 104-457, eff. 6-1-26; revised 1-7-26.)
 
14    Section 5.5. The Illinois TRUST Act is amended by changing
15Section 15 as follows:
 
16    (5 ILCS 805/15)
17    Sec. 15. Prohibition on enforcing federal civil
18immigration laws.     
19    (a) A law enforcement agency or law enforcement official
20shall not detain or continue to detain any individual solely
21on the basis of any immigration detainer or civil immigration
22warrant or otherwise comply with an immigration detainer or
23civil immigration warrant.
24    (b) A law enforcement agency or law enforcement official

 

 

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1shall not stop, arrest, search, detain, or continue to detain
2a person solely based on an individual's citizenship or
3immigration status.
4    (c) (Blank).
5    (d) A law enforcement agency or law enforcement official
6acting in good faith in compliance with this Section who
7releases a person subject to an immigration detainer or civil
8immigration warrant shall have immunity from any civil or
9criminal liability that might otherwise occur as a result of
10making the release, with the exception of willful or wanton
11misconduct.
12    (e) A law enforcement agency or law enforcement official
13may not inquire about or investigate the citizenship or
14immigration status or place of birth of any individual in the
15agency or official's custody or who has otherwise been stopped
16or detained by the agency or official. Nothing in this
17subsection shall be construed to limit the ability of a law
18enforcement agency or law enforcement official, pursuant to
19State or federal law, to notify a person in the law enforcement
20agency's custody about that person's right to communicate with
21consular officers from that person's country of nationality,
22or facilitate such communication, in accordance with the
23Vienna Convention on Consular Relations or other bilateral
24agreements. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to
25limit the ability of a law enforcement agency or law
26enforcement official to request evidence of citizenship or

 

 

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1immigration status pursuant to the Firearm Owners
2Identification Card Act, the Firearm Concealed Carry Act,
3Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 2012, or 18 United States
4Code Sections 921 through 931.
5    (f) Unless otherwise limited by federal law, a law
6enforcement agency or law enforcement official may not deny
7services, benefits, privileges, or opportunities to an
8individual in custody or under probation status, including,
9but not limited to, eligibility for or placement in a lower
10custody classification, educational, rehabilitative, or
11diversionary programs, on the basis of the individual's
12citizenship or immigration status, the issuance of an
13immigration detainer or civil immigration warrant against the
14individual, or the individual being in immigration removal
15proceedings.
16    (g)(1) No law enforcement agency, law enforcement
17official, or any unit of State or local government may enter
18into or renew any contract, intergovernmental service
19agreement, or any other agreement to house or detain
20individuals for federal civil immigration violations.
21    (2) Any law enforcement agency, law enforcement official,
22or unit of State or local government with an existing
23contract, intergovernmental agreement, or other agreement,
24whether in whole or in part, that is utilized to house or
25detain individuals for civil immigration violations shall
26exercise the termination provision in the agreement as applied

 

 

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1to housing or detaining individuals for civil immigration
2violations no later than January 1, 2022.
3    (h) Unless presented with a federal criminal warrant, or
4otherwise required by federal law, a law enforcement agency or
5official may not:
6        (1) participate, support, or assist in any capacity
7    with an immigration agent's enforcement operations,
8    including any collateral assistance such as coordinating
9    an arrest in a courthouse or other public facility,
10    providing use of any equipment, transporting any
11    individuals, or establishing a security or traffic
12    perimeter surrounding such operations, or any other
13    on-site support;
14        (2) give any immigration agent access, including by
15    telephone, to any individual who is in that agency's
16    custody;
17        (3) transfer any person into an immigration agent's
18    custody;
19        (4) permit immigration agents use of agency facilities
20    or equipment, including any agency electronic databases
21    not available to the public, for investigative interviews
22    or other investigative or immigration enforcement purpose;
23        (5) enter into or maintain any agreement regarding
24    direct access to any electronic database or other
25    data-sharing platform maintained by any law enforcement
26    agency, or otherwise provide such direct access to the

 

 

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1    U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement, United States
2    Customs and Border Protection or any other federal entity
3    enforcing civil immigration violations;
4        (6) provide information in response to any immigration
5    agent's inquiry or request for information regarding any
6    individual in the agency's custody; or
7        (7) provide to any immigration agent information not
8    otherwise available to the public relating to an
9    individual's release or contact information, or otherwise
10    facilitate for an immigration agent to apprehend or
11    question an individual for immigration enforcement.
12    (i) Nothing in this Section shall preclude a law
13enforcement official from otherwise executing that official's
14duties in investigating violations of criminal law and
15cooperating in such investigations with federal and other law
16enforcement agencies (including criminal investigations
17conducted by federal Homeland Security Investigations (HSI))
18in order to ensure public safety.
19(Source: P.A. 102-234, eff. 8-2-21; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23.)
 
20    Section 6. The Gun Trafficking Information Act is amended
21by changing Section 10-5 as follows:
 
22    (5 ILCS 830/10-5)
23    Sec. 10-5. Gun trafficking information.
24    (a) The Illinois State Police shall use all reasonable

 

 

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1efforts, as allowed by State law and regulations, federal law
2and regulations, and executed Memoranda of Understanding
3between Illinois law enforcement agencies and the U.S. Bureau
4of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, in making
5publicly available, on a regular and ongoing basis, key
6information related to firearms used in the commission of
7crimes in this State, including, but not limited to: reports
8on crimes committed with firearms, locations where the crimes
9occurred, the number of persons killed or injured in the
10commission of the crimes, whether or not a stolen firearm was
11used in the commission of the crimes, the state where the
12firearms used originated, the Federal Firearms Licensee that
13sold the firearm, the type of firearms used, if known, annual
14statistical information concerning Firearm Owner's
15Identification Card and concealed carry license applications,
16revocations, and compliance with Section 9.5 of the Firearm
17Owners Identification Card Act, the information required in
18the report or on the Illinois State Police's website under
19Section 85 of the Firearms Restraining Order Act, and firearm
20dealer license certification inspections. The Illinois State
21Police shall make the information available on its website,
22which may be presented in a dashboard format, in addition to
23electronically filing a report with the Governor and the
24General Assembly. The report to the General Assembly shall be
25filed with the Clerk of the House of Representatives and the
26Secretary of the Senate in electronic form only, in the manner

 

 

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1that the Clerk and the Secretary shall direct.
2    (b) (Blank). The Illinois State Police shall study, on a
3regular and ongoing basis, and compile reports on the number
4of Firearm Owner's Identification Card checks to determine
5firearms trafficking or straw purchase patterns. The Illinois
6State Police shall, to the extent not inconsistent with law,
7share such reports and underlying data with academic centers,
8foundations, and law enforcement agencies studying firearms
9trafficking, provided that personally identifying information
10is protected. For purposes of this subsection (b), a Firearm
11Owner's Identification Card number is not personally
12identifying information, provided that no other personal
13information of the card holder is attached to the record. The
14Illinois State Police may create and attach an alternate
15unique identifying number to each Firearm Owner's
16Identification Card number, instead of releasing the Firearm
17Owner's Identification Card number itself.
18    (c) Each department, office, division, and agency of this
19State shall, to the extent not inconsistent with law,
20cooperate fully with the Illinois State Police and furnish the
21Illinois State Police with all relevant information and
22assistance on a timely basis as is necessary to accomplish the
23purpose of this Act. The Illinois Criminal Justice Information
24Authority shall submit the information required in subsection
25(a) of this Section to the Illinois State Police, and any other
26information as the Illinois State Police may request, to

 

 

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1assist the Illinois State Police in carrying out its duties
2under this Act.
3(Source: P.A. 103-34, eff. 6-9-23; 104-31, eff. 1-1-26.)
 
4    Section 7. The First Responders Suicide Prevention Act is
5amended by changing Section 40 as follows:
 
6    (5 ILCS 840/40)
7    Sec. 40. Task Force recommendations.
8    (a) Task Force members shall recommend that agencies and
9organizations guarantee access to mental health and wellness
10services, including, but not limited to, peer support programs
11and providing ongoing education related to the ever-evolving
12concept of mental health wellness. These recommendations could
13be accomplished by:
14        (1) Revising agencies' and organizations' employee
15    assistance programs (EAPs).
16        (2) Urging health care providers to replace outdated
17    healthcare plans and include more progressive options
18    catering to the needs and disproportionate risks
19    shouldered by our first responders.
20        (3) Allocating funding or resources for public service
21    announcements (PSA) and messaging campaigns aimed at
22    raising awareness of available assistance options.
23        (4) Encouraging agencies and organizations to attach
24    lists of all available resources to training manuals and

 

 

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1    continuing education requirements.
2    (b) Task Force members shall recommend agencies and
3organizations sponsor or facilitate first responders with
4specialized training in the areas of psychological fitness,
5depressive disorders, early detection, and mitigation best
6practices. Such trainings could be accomplished by:
7        (1) Assigning, appointing, or designating one member
8    of an agency or organization to attend specialized
9    training(s) sponsored by an accredited agency,
10    association, or organization recognized in their fields of
11    study.
12        (2) Seeking sponsorships or conducting fund-raisers,
13    to host annual or semiannual on-site visits from qualified
14    clinicians or physicians to provide early detection
15    training techniques, or to provide regular access to
16    mental health professionals.
17        (3) Requiring a minimum number of hours of disorders
18    and wellness training be incorporated into reoccurring,
19    annual or biannual training standards, examinations, and
20    curriculums, taking into close consideration respective
21    agency or organization size, frequency, and number of all
22    current federal and state mandatory examinations and
23    trainings expected respectively.
24        (4) Not underestimating the crucial importance of a
25    balanced diet, sleep, mindfulness-based stress reduction
26    techniques, moderate and vigorous intensity activities,

 

 

SB3171- 49 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    and recreational hobbies, which have been scientifically
2    proven to play a major role in brain health and mental
3    wellness.
4    (c) Task Force members shall recommend that administrators
5and leadership personnel solicit training services from
6evidence-based, data driven organizations. Organizations with
7personnel trained on the analytical review and interpretation
8of specific fields related to the nature of first responders'
9exploits, such as PTSD, substance abuse, and chronic state of
10duress. Task Force members shall further recommend funding for
11expansion and messaging campaigns of preliminary
12self-diagnosing technologies like the one described above.
13These objectives could be met by:
14        (1) Contacting an accredited agency, association, or
15    organization recognized in the field or fields of specific
16    study. Unbeknownst to the majority, many of the agencies
17    and organizations listed above receive grants and
18    allocations to assist communities with the very issues
19    being discussed in this Section.
20        (2) Normalizing help-seeking behaviors for both first
21    responders and their families through regular messaging
22    and peer support outreach, beginning with academy
23    curricula and continuing education throughout individuals'
24    careers.
25        (3) Funding and implementing PSA campaigns that
26    provide clear and concise calls to action about mental

 

 

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1    health and wellness, resiliency, help-seeking, treatment,
2    and recovery.
3        (4) Promoting and raising awareness of not-for-profit
4    organizations currently available to assist individuals in
5    search of care and treatment. Organizations have intuitive
6    user-friendly sites, most of which have mobile
7    applications, so first responders can access at a moment's
8    notice. However, because of limited funds, these
9    organizations have a challenging time of getting the word
10    out there about their existence.
11        (5) Expanding Family and Medical Leave Act protections
12    for individuals voluntarily seeking preventative
13    treatment.
14        (6) Promoting and ensuring complete patient
15    confidentiality protections.
16    (d) Task Force members shall recommend that agencies and
17organizations incorporate the following training components
18into already existing modules and educational curriculums.
19Doing so could be done by:
20        (1) Bolstering academy and school curricula by
21    requiring depressive disorder training catered to PTSD,
22    substance abuse, and early detection techniques training,
23    taking into close consideration respective agency or
24    organization size, and the frequency and number of all
25    current federal and state mandatory examinations and
26    trainings expected respectively.

 

 

SB3171- 51 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        (2) Continuing to allocate or match federal and state
2    funds to maintain Mobile Training Units (MTUs).
3        (3) Incorporating a state certificate for peer support
4    training into already existing statewide curriculums and
5    mandatory examinations, annual State Fire Marshal
6    examinations, and physical fitness examinations. The
7    subject matter of the certificate should have an emphasis
8    on mental health and wellness, as well as familiarization
9    with topics ranging from clinical social work, clinical
10    psychology, clinical behaviorist, and clinical psychiatry.
11        (4) Incorporating and performing statewide mental
12    health check-ins during the same times as already mandated
13    trainings. These checks are not to be compared or used as
14    measures of fitness for duty evaluations or structured
15    psychological examinations.
16        (5) Recommending comprehensive and evidence-based
17    training on the importance of preventative measures on the
18    topics of sleep, nutrition, mindfulness, and physical
19    movement.
20        (6) (Blank). Law enforcement agencies should provide
21    training on the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act,
22    including seeking relief from the Illinois State Police
23    under Section 10 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card
24    Act and a FOID card being a continued condition of
25    employment under Section 7.2 of the Uniform Peace
26    Officers' Disciplinary Act.    

 

 

SB3171- 52 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1(Source: P.A. 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24;
2104-417, eff. 8-15-25.)
 
3    Section 8. The Department of Natural Resources
4(Conservation) Law of the Civil Administrative Code of
5Illinois is amended by changing Section 805-538 as follows:
 
6    (20 ILCS 805/805-538)
7    Sec. 805-538. Retiring officer; purchase of service
8firearm and police badge. The Director of Natural Resources
9shall establish a program to allow a Conservation Police
10Officer who is honorably retiring in good standing to purchase
11either one or both of the following: (1) any Department of
12Natural Resources police badge previously issued to that
13officer; or (2) if the officer has a currently valid Firearm
14Owner's Identification Card, the service firearm issued or
15previously issued to the officer by the Department of Natural
16Resources. The cost of the firearm shall be the replacement
17value of the firearm and not the firearm's fair market value.
18(Source: P.A. 100-931, eff. 8-17-18.)
 
19    Section 9. The Department of Revenue Law of the Civil
20Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section
212505-306 as follows:
 
22    (20 ILCS 2505/2505-306)

 

 

SB3171- 53 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    Sec. 2505-306. Retiring investigators; purchase of service
2firearm and badge. The Director shall establish a program to
3allow a Department investigator who is honorably retiring in
4good standing to purchase either one or both of the following:
5(1) any badge previously issued to the investigator by the
6Department; or (2) if the investigator has a currently valid
7Firearm Owner's Identification Card, the service firearm
8issued or previously issued to the investigator by the
9Department. The cost of the firearm shall be the replacement
10value of the firearm and not the firearm's fair market value.
11(Source: P.A. 102-719, eff. 5-6-22.)
 
12    Section 10. The Illinois State Police Law of the Civil
13Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing
14Sections 2605-10, 2605-45, 2605-200, and 2605-595 as follows:
 
15    (20 ILCS 2605/2605-10)  (was 20 ILCS 2605/55a in part)
16    Sec. 2605-10. Powers and duties, generally.
17    (a) The Illinois State Police shall exercise the rights,
18powers, and duties that have been vested in the Illinois State
19Police by the following:
20        The Illinois State Police Act.
21        The Illinois State Police Radio Act.
22        The Criminal Identification Act.
23        The Illinois Vehicle Code.
24        The Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

 

 

SB3171- 54 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        The Firearm Concealed Carry Act.
2        The Firearm Dealer License Certification Act.
3        The Intergovernmental Missing Child Recovery Act of
4    1984.
5        The Intergovernmental Drug Laws Enforcement Act.
6        The Narcotic Control Division Abolition Act.
7        The Illinois Uniform Conviction Information Act.
8        The Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth
9    Registration Act.
10    (b) The Illinois State Police shall have the powers and
11duties set forth in the following Sections. The Illinois State
12Police may receive revenue and real and personal property from
13any legal source, grants, pass-through grants, donations, and
14lawful appropriations.
15    (c) The Illinois State Police shall exercise the rights,
16powers, and duties vested in the Illinois State Police to
17implement the following protective service functions for State
18facilities, State officials, and State employees serving in
19their official capacity:
20        (1) Utilize subject matter expertise and law
21    enforcement authority to strengthen the protection of
22    State government facilities, State employees, State
23    officials, and State critical infrastructure.
24        (2) Coordinate State, federal, and local law
25    enforcement activities involving the protection of State
26    facilities, officials, and employees.

 

 

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1        (3) Conduct investigations of criminal threats to
2    State facilities, State critical infrastructure, State
3    officials, and State employees.
4        (4) Train State officials and employees in personal
5    protection, crime prevention, facility occupant emergency
6    planning, and incident management.
7        (5) Establish standard protocols for prevention and
8    response to criminal threats to State facilities, State
9    officials, State employees, and State critical
10    infrastructure and standard protocols for reporting of
11    suspicious activities.
12        (6) Establish minimum operational standards,
13    qualifications, training, and compliance requirements for
14    State employees and contractors engaged in the protection
15    of State facilities and employees.
16        (7) At the request of departments or agencies of State
17    government, conduct security assessments, including, but
18    not limited to, examination of alarm systems, cameras
19    systems, access points, personnel readiness, and emergency
20    protocols based on risk and need.
21        (8) Oversee the planning and implementation of
22    security and law enforcement activities necessary for the
23    protection of major, multi-jurisdictional events
24    implicating potential criminal threats to State officials,
25    State employees, or State-owned, State-leased, or
26    State-operated critical infrastructure or facilities.

 

 

SB3171- 56 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        (9) Oversee and direct the planning and implementation
2    of security and law enforcement activities by the
3    departments and agencies of the State necessary for the
4    protection of State employees, State officials, and
5    State-owned, State-leased, or State-operated critical
6    infrastructure or facilities from criminal activity.
7        (10) Advise the Governor and Homeland Security Advisor
8    on any matters necessary for the effective protection of
9    State facilities, critical infrastructure, officials, and
10    employees from criminal threats.
11        (11) Utilize intergovernmental agreements and
12    administrative rules as needed for the effective,
13    efficient implementation of law enforcement and support
14    activities necessary for the protection of State
15    facilities, State infrastructure, State employees, and,
16    upon the express written consent of State constitutional
17    officials, State constitutional officials.
18(Source: P.A. 103-34, eff. 1-1-24; 103-564, eff. 11-17-23;
19104-24, eff. 1-1-26.)
 
20    (20 ILCS 2605/2605-45)  (was 20 ILCS 2605/55a-5)
21    Sec. 2605-45. Division of Justice Services.
22    (a) The Division of Justice Services shall provide
23administrative and technical services and support to the
24Illinois State Police, criminal justice agencies, and the
25public and shall exercise the following functions:

 

 

SB3171- 57 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        (1) Operate and maintain the Law Enforcement Agencies
2    Data System (LEADS), a statewide, computerized
3    telecommunications system designed to provide services,
4    information, and capabilities to the law enforcement and
5    criminal justice community in the State of Illinois. The
6    Director is responsible for establishing policy,
7    procedures, and regulations consistent with State and
8    federal rules, policies, and law by which LEADS operates.
9    The Director shall designate a statewide LEADS
10    Administrator for management of the system. The Director
11    may appoint a LEADS Advisory Policy Board to reflect the
12    needs and desires of the law enforcement and criminal
13    justice community and to make recommendations concerning
14    policies and procedures.
15        (2) Pursue research and the publication of studies
16    pertaining to local law enforcement activities.
17        (3) Serve as the State's point of contact for the
18    Federal Bureau of Investigation's Uniform Crime Reporting
19    Program and National Incident-Based Reporting System.
20        (4) Operate an electronic data processing and computer
21    center for the storage and retrieval of data pertaining to
22    criminal activity.
23        (5) Exercise the rights, powers, and duties vested in
24    the Illinois State Police by the Cannabis Regulation and
25    Tax Act and the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis
26    Program Act.

 

 

SB3171- 58 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        (6) (Blank).
2        (6.5) Exercise the rights, powers, and duties vested
3    in the Illinois State Police by the Firearm Owners
4    Identification Card Act, the Firearm Concealed Carry Act,
5    the Firearm Transfer Inquiry Program, the prohibited
6    persons portal under Section 2605-304, and the Firearm
7    Dealer License Certification Act.
8        (7) Exercise other duties that may be assigned by the
9    Director to fulfill the responsibilities and achieve the
10    purposes of the Illinois State Police.
11        (8) Exercise the rights, powers, and duties vested by
12    law in the Illinois State Police by the Criminal
13    Identification Act and the Illinois Uniform Conviction
14    Information Act.
15        (9) Exercise the powers and perform the duties that
16    have been vested in the Illinois State Police by the
17    Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Registration
18    Act, the Sex Offender Registration Act, and the Sex
19    Offender Community Notification Law and adopt reasonable
20    rules necessitated thereby.
21        (10) Serve as the State central repository for
22    criminal history record information.
23        (11) Share all necessary information with the
24    Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board and the Firearms
25    Owner's Identification Card Review Board necessary for the
26    execution of their duties.

 

 

SB3171- 59 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        (12) Serve as the CJIS Systems Agency for Illinois.
2    (b) Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, the CJIS
3Security Policy of the Federal Bureau of Investigation governs
4criminal justice information systems and requires all of those
5systems to be subject to a management control agreement
6controlled by the criminal justice agency that owns the
7criminal justice information system and to be subject to
8oversight by the CJIS Systems Agency. The CJIS Systems Agency
9shall establish principles and standards to provide
10consistency in the operation and use of criminal justice
11system information technology throughout the State. The CJIS
12Systems Agency may impose more stringent or additional
13protection measures than those measures outlined in the CJIS
14Security Policy of the Federal Bureau of Investigation if the
15protection measures are documented and maintained. State
16agencies and units of local government shall work with the
17CJIS Systems Agency to follow all principles and standards,
18including those imposed under this Section. Consistent with
19the CJIS Security Policy of the Federal Bureau of
20Investigation, no State agency, unit of local government, or
21employee of a State agency or unit of local government shall
22usurp, replace, or diminish the role and responsibility of the
23CJIS Information Security Officer or the CJIS Systems Officer
24appointed by the head of the CJIS Systems Agency.
25(Source: P.A. 103-34, eff. 1-1-24; 104-157, eff. 1-1-26.)
 

 

 

SB3171- 60 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    (20 ILCS 2605/2605-200)  (was 20 ILCS 2605/55a in part)
2    Sec. 2605-200. Investigations of crime; enforcement of
3laws; records; crime laboratories; personnel.
4    (a) To do the following:
5        (1) Investigate the origins, activities, personnel,
6    and incidents of crime and the ways and means to redress
7    the victims of crimes; study the impact, if any, of
8    legislation relative to the effusion of crime and growing
9    crime rates; and enforce the criminal laws of this State
10    related thereto.
11        (2) Enforce all laws regulating the production, sale,
12    prescribing, manufacturing, administering, transporting,
13    having in possession, dispensing, delivering,
14    distributing, or use of controlled substances and
15    cannabis.
16        (3) Employ skilled experts, scientists, technicians,
17    investigators, or otherwise specially qualified persons to
18    aid in preventing or detecting crime, apprehending
19    criminals, or preparing and presenting evidence of
20    violations of the criminal laws of the State.
21        (4) Cooperate with the police of cities, villages, and
22    incorporated towns and with the police officers of any
23    county in enforcing the laws of the State and in making
24    arrests and recovering property.
25        (5) Apprehend and deliver up any person charged in
26    this State or any other state of the United States with

 

 

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1    treason or a felony or other crime who has fled from
2    justice and is found in this State.
3        (6) Conduct other investigations as provided by law.
4        (7) Be a central repository and custodian of criminal
5    statistics for the State.
6        (8) Be a central repository for criminal history
7    record information.
8        (9) Procure and file for record information that is
9    necessary and helpful to plan programs of crime
10    prevention, law enforcement, and criminal justice.
11        (10) Procure and file for record copies of
12    fingerprints that may be required by law.
13        (11) Establish general and field crime laboratories.
14        (12) (Blank). Register and file for record information
15    that may be required by law for the issuance of firearm
16    owner's identification cards under the Firearm Owners
17    Identification Card Act and concealed carry licenses under
18    the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.
19        (13) Employ laboratory technicians and other specially
20    qualified persons to aid in the identification of criminal
21    activity and the identification, collection, and recovery
22    of cyber forensics, including, but not limited to, digital
23    evidence, and may employ polygraph operators and forensic
24    anthropologists.
25        (14) Undertake other identification, information,
26    laboratory, statistical, or registration activities that

 

 

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1    may be required by law.
2    (b) Persons exercising the powers set forth in subsection
3(a) within the Illinois State Police are conservators of the
4peace and as such have all the powers possessed by policemen in
5cities and sheriffs, except that they may exercise those
6powers anywhere in the State in cooperation with and after
7contact with the local law enforcement officials. Those
8persons may use false or fictitious names in the performance
9of their duties under this Section, upon approval of the
10Director, and shall not be subject to prosecution under the
11criminal laws for that use.
12(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 103-34, eff. 1-1-24.)
 
13    (20 ILCS 2605/2605-595)
14    (Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 104-131)
15    Sec. 2605-595. State Police Firearm Services Fund.
16    (a) There is created in the State treasury a special fund
17known as the State Police Firearm Services Fund. The Fund
18shall receive revenue under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act
19and , the Firearm Dealer License Certification Act, and
20Section 5 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. The
21Fund may also receive revenue from grants, pass-through
22grants, donations, appropriations, and any other legal source.
23    (a-5) (Blank).
24    (b) The Illinois State Police may use moneys in the Fund to
25finance any of its lawful purposes, mandates, functions, and

 

 

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1duties under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, the
2Firearm Dealer License Certification Act, and the Firearm
3Concealed Carry Act, including the cost of sending notices of
4expiration of Firearm Owner's Identification Cards, concealed
5carry licenses, the prompt and efficient processing of
6applications under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act
7and the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, the improved efficiency
8and reporting of the LEADS and federal NICS law enforcement
9data systems, and support for investigations required under
10these Acts and law. Any surplus funds beyond what is needed to
11comply with the aforementioned purposes shall be used by the
12Illinois State Police to improve the Law Enforcement Agencies
13Data System (LEADS) and criminal history background check
14system.
15    (c) Investment income that is attributable to the
16investment of moneys in the Fund shall be retained in the Fund
17for the uses specified in this Section.
18(Source: P.A. 102-505, eff. 8-20-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21;
19103-363, eff. 7-28-23.)
 
20    (Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 104-131)
21    Sec. 2605-595. State Police Firearm Services Fund.
22    (a) There is created in the State treasury a special fund
23known as the State Police Firearm Services Fund. The Fund
24shall receive revenue under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act
25and , the Firearm Dealer License Certification Act, Article 24

 

 

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1of the Criminal Code of 2012, other provisions of law
2concerning firearm offenses, and Section 5 of the Firearm
3Owners Identification Card Act. The Fund may also receive
4revenue from grants, pass-through grants, donations,
5appropriations, and any other legal source.
6    (a-5) (Blank).
7    (a-10) Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the
8contrary, and in addition to any other transfers that may be
9provided by law, on the effective date of this amendatory Act
10of the 104th General Assembly, or as soon thereafter as
11practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State
12Treasurer shall transfer the remaining balance from the State
13Police Firearm Enforcement Fund into the State Police Firearm
14Services Fund. Upon completion of the transfer, the State
15Police Firearm Enforcement Fund is dissolved, and any future
16deposits due to that Fund and any outstanding obligations or
17liabilities of that Fund shall pass to the State Police
18Firearm Services Fund.
19    (a-15) The Illinois State Police may use moneys from the
20Fund to establish task forces and, if necessary, include other
21law enforcement agencies, under intergovernmental contracts
22written and executed in conformity with the Intergovernmental
23Cooperation Act.
24    (a-20) The Illinois State Police may use moneys in the
25Fund to hire and train Illinois State Police officers and for
26the prevention of violent crime.

 

 

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1    (b) The Illinois State Police may use moneys in the Fund to
2finance any of its lawful purposes, mandates, functions,
3enforcement, and duties under the Firearm Owners
4Identification Card Act, the Firearm Dealer License
5Certification Act, Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 2012,
6provisions of law concerning firearm offenses, and the Firearm
7Concealed Carry Act, including the cost of sending notices of
8expiration of Firearm Owner's Identification Cards, concealed
9carry licenses, the prompt and efficient processing of
10applications under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act
11and the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, the improved efficiency
12and reporting of the LEADS and federal NICS law enforcement
13data systems, and support for investigations required under
14these Acts and law. Any surplus funds beyond what is needed to
15comply with the aforementioned purposes shall be used by the
16Illinois State Police to improve the Law Enforcement Agencies
17Data System (LEADS) and criminal history background check
18system.
19    (b-5) Any surplus in the Fund beyond what is necessary to
20ensure compliance with subsections (a) through (b) or moneys
21that are specifically appropriated for those purposes shall be
22used by the Illinois State Police to award grants to assist
23with the data reporting requirements of the Gun Trafficking
24Information Act.
25    (c) Investment income that is attributable to the
26investment of moneys in the Fund shall be retained in the Fund

 

 

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1for the uses specified in this Section.
2(Source: P.A. 103-363, eff. 7-28-23; 104-131, eff. 9-1-26.)
 
3    (20 ILCS 2605/2605-120 rep.)
4    (20 ILCS 2605/2605-304 rep.)
5    Section 15. The Department of State Police Law of the
6Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by repealing
7Sections 2605-120 and 2605-304.
 
8    Section 16. The Illinois State Police Act is amended by
9changing Section 17b as follows:
 
10    (20 ILCS 2610/17b)
11    Sec. 17b. Retiring officer; purchase of service firearm
12and police badge. The Director of the Illinois State Police
13shall establish a policy to allow a State Police officer who is
14honorably retiring or separating in good standing to purchase
15either one or both of the following: (i) any State Police badge
16previously issued to that officer; or (ii) if the officer has a
17currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card, the
18service firearm issued or previously issued to the officer by
19the Illinois State Police. The cost of the firearm purchased
20shall be the replacement value of the firearm and not the
21firearm's fair market value.
22(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)
 

 

 

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1    Section 20. The Criminal Identification Act is amended by
2changing Section 2.2 as follows:
 
3    (20 ILCS 2630/2.2)
4    Sec. 2.2. Notification to the Illinois State Police. Upon
5judgment of conviction of a violation of Section 12-1, 12-2,
612-3, 12-3.2, 12-3.4, or 12-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or
7the Criminal Code of 2012 when the defendant has been
8determined, pursuant to Section 112A-11.1 of the Code of
9Criminal Procedure of 1963, to be subject to the prohibitions
10of 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(9), the circuit court clerk shall include
11notification and a copy of the written determination in a
12report of the conviction to the Illinois State Police Firearm
13Owner's Identification Card Office to enable the Illinois
14State Police office to perform its duties under the Firearm
15Concealed Carry Act and Sections 4 and 8 of the Firearm Owners
16Identification Card Act and to report that determination to
17the Federal Bureau of Investigation to assist the Federal    
18Bureau of Investigation in identifying persons prohibited from
19purchasing and possessing a firearm pursuant to the provisions
20of 18 U.S.C. 922. The written determination described in this
21Section shall be included in the defendant's record of arrest
22and conviction in the manner and form prescribed by the
23Illinois State Police.
24(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)
 

 

 

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1    Section 21. The Peace Officer Fire Investigation Act is
2amended by changing Section 1 as follows:
 
3    (20 ILCS 2910/1)  (from Ch. 127 1/2, par. 501)
4    Sec. 1. Peace officer status.
5    (a) Any person who is a sworn member of any organized and
6paid fire department of a political subdivision of this State
7and is authorized to investigate fires or explosions for such
8political subdivision and to determine the cause, origin and
9circumstances of fires or explosions that are suspected to be
10arson or arson-related crimes, may be classified as a peace
11officer by the political subdivision or agency employing such
12person. A person so classified shall possess the same powers
13of arrest, search and seizure and the securing and service of
14warrants as sheriffs of counties, and police officers within
15the jurisdiction of their political subdivision. While in the
16actual investigation and matters incident thereto, such person
17may carry weapons as may be necessary, but only if that person
18has satisfactorily completed (1) a training program offered or
19approved by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards
20Board which substantially conforms to standards promulgated
21pursuant to the Illinois Police Training Act and the Peace
22Officer and Probation Officer Firearm Training Act; and (2) a
23course in fire and arson investigation approved by the Office
24of the State Fire Marshal pursuant to the Illinois Fire
25Protection Training Act. Such training need not include

 

 

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1exposure to vehicle and traffic law, traffic control and crash
2investigation, or first aid, but shall include training in the
3law relating to the rights of persons suspected of involvement
4in criminal activities.
5    Any person granted the powers enumerated in this
6subsection (a) may exercise such powers only during the actual
7investigation of the cause, origin and circumstances of such
8fires or explosions that are suspected to be arson or
9arson-related crimes.
10    (b) Persons employed by the Office of the State Fire
11Marshal to conduct arson investigations shall be designated
12State Fire Marshal Arson Investigator Special Agents and shall
13be peace officers with all of the powers of peace officers in
14cities and sheriffs in counties, except that they may exercise
15those powers throughout the State. These Special Agents may
16exercise these powers only when engaging in official duties
17during the actual investigation of the cause, origin, and
18circumstances of such fires or explosions that are suspected
19to be arson or arson-related crimes and may carry weapons at
20all times, but only if they have satisfactorily completed (1)
21a training course approved by the Illinois Law Enforcement
22Training Standards Board that substantially conforms to the
23standards promulgated pursuant to the Peace Officer and
24Probation Officer Firearm Training Act and (2) a course in
25fire and arson investigation approved by the Office of the
26State Fire Marshal pursuant to the Illinois Fire Protection

 

 

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1Training Act. Such training need not include exposure to
2vehicle and traffic law, traffic control and crash
3investigation, or first aid, but shall include training in the
4law relating to the rights of persons suspected of involvement
5in criminal activities.
6    For purposes of this subsection (b), a "State Fire Marshal
7Arson Investigator Special Agent" does not include any fire
8investigator, fireman, police officer, or other employee of
9the federal government; any fire investigator, fireman, police
10officer, or other employee of any unit of local government; or
11any fire investigator, fireman, police officer, or other
12employee of the State of Illinois other than an employee of the
13Office of the State Fire Marshal assigned to investigate
14arson.
15    The State Fire Marshal must authorize to each employee of
16the Office of the State Fire Marshal who is exercising the
17powers of a peace officer a distinct badge that, on its face,
18(i) clearly states that the badge is authorized by the Office
19of the State Fire Marshal and (ii) contains a unique
20identifying number. No other badge shall be authorized by the
21Office of the State Fire Marshal, except that a badge,
22different from the badge issued to peace officers, may be
23authorized by the Office of the State Fire Marshal for the use
24of fire prevention inspectors employed by that Office. Nothing
25in this subsection prohibits the State Fire Marshal from
26issuing shields or other distinctive identification to

 

 

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1employees not exercising the powers of a peace officer if the
2State Fire Marshal determines that a shield or distinctive
3identification is needed by the employee to carry out his or
4her responsibilities.
5    (c) The Office of the State Fire Marshal shall establish a
6policy to allow a State Fire Marshal Arson Investigator
7Special Agent who is honorably retiring or separating in good
8standing to purchase either one or both of the following: (i)
9any badge previously issued to that State Fire Marshal Arson
10Investigator Special Agent; or (ii) if the State Fire Marshal
11Arson Investigator Special Agent has a currently valid Firearm
12Owner's Identification Card, the service firearm issued or
13previously issued to the State Fire Marshal Arson Investigator
14Special Agent by the Office of the State Fire Marshal. The cost
15of the firearm purchased shall be the replacement value of the
16firearm and not the firearm's fair market value. All funds
17received by the agency under this program shall be deposited
18into the Fire Prevention Fund.
19(Source: P.A. 102-982, eff. 7-1-23.)
 
20    Section 22. The Illinois Criminal Justice Information Act
21is amended by changing Section 7.9 as follows:
 
22    (20 ILCS 3930/7.9)
23    (Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2027)
24    Sec. 7.9. Firearm Prohibitors and Records Improvement Task

 

 

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1Force.
2    (a) As used in this Section, "firearms prohibitor" means
3any factor listed in Section 4 of the Firearm Owners
4Identification Card Act or Section 24-3 or 24-3.1 of the
5Criminal Code of 2012 that prohibits a person from
6transferring or possessing a firearm, firearm ammunition,
7Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or concealed carry
8license.
9    (b) The Firearm Prohibitors and Records Improvement Task
10Force is created to identify and research all available
11grants, resources, and revenue that may be applied for and
12used by all entities responsible for reporting federal and
13State firearm prohibitors to the Illinois State Police and the
14National Instant Criminal Background Check System. These Under
15the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, these reporting
16entities include, but are not limited to, hospitals, courts,
17law enforcement and corrections. The Task Force shall identify
18weaknesses in reporting and recommend a strategy to direct
19resources and revenue to ensuring reporting is reliable,
20accurate, and timely. The Task Force shall inventory all
21statutorily mandated firearm and gun violence related data
22collection and reporting requirements, along with the agency
23responsible for collecting that data, and identify gaps in
24those requirements. The Task Force shall submit a coordinated
25application with and through the Illinois Criminal Justice
26Information Authority for federal funds from the National

 

 

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1Criminal History Improvement Program and the NICS Acts Record
2Improvement Program. The Firearm Prohibitors and Records
3Improvement Task Force shall be comprised of the following
4members, all of whom shall serve without compensation:
5        (1) the Executive Director of the Illinois Criminal
6    Justice Information Authority, who shall serve as Chair;
7        (2) the Director of the Illinois State Police, or his
8    or her designee;
9        (3) the Secretary of Human Services, or his or her
10    designee;
11        (4) the Director of Corrections, or his or her
12    designee;
13        (5) the Attorney General, or his or her designee;
14        (6) the Director of the Administrative Office of the
15    Illinois Courts, or his or her designee;
16        (7) a representative of an association representing
17    circuit clerks appointed by the President of the Senate;
18        (8) a representative of an association representing
19    sheriffs appointed by the House Minority Leader;
20        (9) a representative of an association representing
21    State's Attorneys appointed by the House Minority Leader;
22        (10) a representative of an association representing
23    chiefs of police appointed by the Senate Minority Leader;
24        (11) a representative of an association representing
25    hospitals appointed by the Speaker of the House of
26    Representatives;

 

 

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1        (12) a representative of an association representing
2    counties appointed by the President of the Senate; and
3        (13) a representative of an association representing
4    municipalities appointed by the Speaker of the House of
5    Representatives.
6    (c) The Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority
7shall provide administrative and other support to the Task
8Force. The Illinois State Police Division of Justice Services
9shall also provide support to the Illinois Criminal Justice
10Information Authority and the Task Force.
11    (d) The Task Force may meet in person or virtually and
12shall issue a written report of its findings and
13recommendations to General Assembly on or before July 1, 2022.
14The Task Force shall issue an annual report, which shall
15include information on the state of FOID data, including a
16review of previous activity by the Task Force to close
17previously identified gaps; identifying known (or new) gaps; a
18proposal of policy and practice recommendations to close those
19gaps; and a preview of expected activities of the Task Force
20for the coming year.
21    (e) Within 60 days of the effective date of this
22amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, the Chair shall
23establish the Task Force.
24    (f) This Section is repealed on July 1, 2027.
25(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22.)
 

 

 

SB3171- 75 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    Section 25. The State Finance Act is amended by changing
2Sections 6z-99 and 6z-127 as follows:
 
3    (30 ILCS 105/6z-99)
4    Sec. 6z-99. The Mental Health Reporting Fund.
5    (a) There is created in the State treasury a special fund
6known as the Mental Health Reporting Fund. The Fund shall
7receive revenue under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act. The
8Fund may also receive revenue from grants, pass-through
9grants, donations, appropriations, and any other legal source.
10    (b) The Illinois State Police and Department of Human
11Services shall coordinate to use moneys in the Fund to finance
12their respective duties of collecting and reporting data on
13mental health records and ensuring that mental health firearm
14possession prohibitors are enforced as set forth under the
15Firearm Concealed Carry Act and the Firearm Owners
16Identification Card Act. Any surplus in the Fund beyond what
17is necessary to ensure compliance with mental health reporting
18under that Act these Acts shall be used by the Department of
19Human Services for mental health treatment programs as
20follows: (1) 50% shall be used to fund community-based mental
21health programs aimed at reducing gun violence, community
22integration and education, or mental health awareness and
23prevention, including administrative costs; and (2) 50% shall
24be used to award grants that use and promote the National
25School Mental Health Curriculum model for school-based mental

 

 

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1health support, integration, and services.
2    (c) Investment income that is attributable to the
3investment of moneys in the Fund shall be retained in the Fund
4for the uses specified in this Section.
5(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21;
6102-813, eff. 5-13-22.)
 
7    (30 ILCS 105/6z-127)
8    (Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 104-131)
9    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)
10    Sec. 6z-127. State Police Firearm Enforcement Fund.
11    (a) The State Police Firearm Enforcement Fund is
12established as a special fund in the State treasury. This Fund
13is established to receive moneys from the Firearm Owners
14Identification Card Act to enforce that Act, the Firearm
15Concealed Carry Act, Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 2012,
16and other firearm offenses. The Fund may also receive revenue
17from grants, donations, appropriations, and any other legal
18source.
19    (b) The Illinois State Police may use moneys from the Fund
20to establish task forces and, if necessary, include other law
21enforcement agencies, under intergovernmental contracts
22written and executed in conformity with the Intergovernmental
23Cooperation Act.
24    (c) The Illinois State Police may use moneys in the Fund to
25hire and train State Police officers and for the prevention of

 

 

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1violent crime.
2    (d) The State Police Firearm Enforcement Fund is not
3subject to administrative chargebacks.
4    (e) (Blank). Law enforcement agencies that participate in
5Firearm Owner's Identification Card revocation enforcement in
6the Violent Crime Intelligence Task Force may apply for grants
7from the Illinois State Police.
8    (f) Any surplus in the Fund beyond what is necessary to
9ensure compliance with subsections (a) through (e) or moneys
10that are specifically appropriated for those purposes shall be
11used by the Illinois State Police to award grants to assist
12with the data reporting requirements of the Gun Trafficking
13Information Act.
14(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22;
15103-34, eff. 6-9-23; 103-609, eff. 7-1-24.)
 
16    (Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 104-131)
17    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)
18    Sec. 6z-127. State Police Firearm Enforcement Fund.
19    (a) The State Police Firearm Enforcement Fund is
20established as a special fund in the State treasury. This Fund
21is established to receive moneys from the Firearm Owners
22Identification Card Act to enforce that Act, the Firearm
23Concealed Carry Act, Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 2012,
24and other firearm offenses. The Fund may also receive revenue
25from grants, donations, appropriations, and any other legal

 

 

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1source.
2    (b) The Illinois State Police may use moneys from the Fund
3to establish task forces and, if necessary, include other law
4enforcement agencies, under intergovernmental contracts
5written and executed in conformity with the Intergovernmental
6Cooperation Act.
7    (c) The Illinois State Police may use moneys in the Fund to
8hire and train State Police officers and for the prevention of
9violent crime.
10    (d) The State Police Firearm Enforcement Fund is not
11subject to administrative chargebacks.
12    (e) (Blank). Law enforcement agencies that participate in
13Firearm Owner's Identification Card revocation enforcement in
14the Violent Crime Intelligence Task Force may apply for grants
15from the Illinois State Police.
16    (f) Any surplus in the Fund beyond what is necessary to
17ensure compliance with subsections (a) through (e) or moneys
18that are specifically appropriated for those purposes shall be
19used by the Illinois State Police to award grants to assist
20with the data reporting requirements of the Gun Trafficking
21Information Act.
22    (g) This Fund is dissolved upon the transfer of the
23remaining balance from the State Police Firearm Enforcement
24Fund to the State Police Firearm Services Fund as provided
25under subsection (a-10) of Section 2605-595 of the Illinois
26State Police Law. This Section is repealed on January 1, 2027.

 

 

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1(Source: P.A. 103-34, eff. 6-9-23; 103-609, eff. 7-1-24;
2104-131, eff. 9-1-26.)
 
3    Section 25.5. The Illinois Procurement Code is amended by
4changing Section 1-10 as follows:
 
5    (30 ILCS 500/1-10)
6    Sec. 1-10. Application.
7    (a) This Code applies only to procurements for which
8bidders, offerors, potential contractors, or contractors were
9first solicited on or after July 1, 1998. This Code shall not
10be construed to affect or impair any contract, or any
11provision of a contract, entered into based on a solicitation
12prior to the implementation date of this Code as described in
13Article 99, including, but not limited to, any covenant
14entered into with respect to any revenue bonds or similar
15instruments. All procurements for which contracts are
16solicited between the effective date of Articles 50 and 99 and
17July 1, 1998 shall be substantially in accordance with this
18Code and its intent.
19    (b) This Code shall apply regardless of the source of the
20funds with which the contracts are paid, including federal
21assistance moneys. This Code shall not apply to:
22        (1) Contracts between the State and its political
23    subdivisions or other governments, or between State
24    governmental bodies, except as specifically provided in

 

 

SB3171- 80 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    this Code.
2        (2) Grants, except for the filing requirements of
3    Section 20-80.
4        (3) Purchase of care, except as provided in Section
5    5-30.6 of the Illinois Public Aid Code and this Section.
6        (4) Hiring of an individual as an employee and not as
7    an independent contractor, whether pursuant to an
8    employment code or policy or by contract directly with
9    that individual.
10        (5) Collective bargaining contracts.
11        (6) Purchase of real estate, except that notice of
12    this type of contract with a value of more than $25,000
13    must be published in the Procurement Bulletin within 10
14    calendar days after the deed is recorded in the county of
15    jurisdiction. The notice shall identify the real estate
16    purchased, the names of all parties to the contract, the
17    value of the contract, and the effective date of the
18    contract.
19        (7) Contracts necessary to prepare for anticipated
20    litigation, enforcement actions, or investigations,
21    provided that the chief legal counsel to the Governor
22    shall give his or her prior approval when the procuring
23    agency is one subject to the jurisdiction of the Governor,
24    and provided that the chief legal counsel of any other
25    procuring entity subject to this Code shall give his or
26    her prior approval when the procuring entity is not one

 

 

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1    subject to the jurisdiction of the Governor.
2        (8) (Blank).
3        (9) Procurement expenditures by the Illinois
4    Conservation Foundation when only private funds are used.
5        (10) (Blank).
6        (11) Public-private agreements entered into according
7    to the procurement requirements of Section 20 of the
8    Public-Private Partnerships for Transportation Act and
9    design-build agreements entered into according to the
10    procurement requirements of Section 25 of the
11    Public-Private Partnerships for Transportation Act.
12        (12) (A) Contracts for legal, financial, and other
13    professional and artistic services entered into by the
14    Illinois Finance Authority in which the State of Illinois
15    is not obligated. Such contracts shall be awarded through
16    a competitive process authorized by the members of the
17    Illinois Finance Authority and are subject to Sections
18    5-30, 20-160, 50-13, 50-20, 50-35, and 50-37 of this Code,
19    as well as the final approval by the members of the
20    Illinois Finance Authority of the terms of the contract.
21        (B) Contracts for legal and financial services entered
22    into by the Illinois Housing Development Authority in
23    connection with the issuance of bonds in which the State
24    of Illinois is not obligated. Such contracts shall be
25    awarded through a competitive process authorized by the
26    members of the Illinois Housing Development Authority and

 

 

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1    are subject to Sections 5-30, 20-160, 50-13, 50-20, 50-35,
2    and 50-37 of this Code, as well as the final approval by
3    the members of the Illinois Housing Development Authority
4    of the terms of the contract.
5        (13) Contracts for services, commodities, and
6    equipment to support the delivery of timely forensic
7    science services in consultation with and subject to the
8    approval of the Chief Procurement Officer as provided in
9    subsection (d) of Section 5-4-3a of the Unified Code of
10    Corrections, except for the requirements of Sections
11    20-60, 20-65, 20-70, and 20-160 and Article 50 of this
12    Code; however, the Chief Procurement Officer may, in
13    writing with justification, waive any certification
14    required under Article 50 of this Code. For any contracts
15    for services which are currently provided by members of a
16    collective bargaining agreement, the applicable terms of
17    the collective bargaining agreement concerning
18    subcontracting shall be followed.
19        On and after January 1, 2019, this paragraph (13),
20    except for this sentence, is inoperative.
21        (14) Contracts for participation expenditures required
22    by a domestic or international trade show or exhibition of
23    an exhibitor, member, or sponsor.
24        (15) Contracts with a railroad or utility that
25    requires the State to reimburse the railroad or utilities
26    for the relocation of utilities for construction or other

 

 

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1    public purpose. Contracts included within this paragraph
2    (15) shall include, but not be limited to, those
3    associated with: relocations, crossings, installations,
4    and maintenance. For the purposes of this paragraph (15),
5    "railroad" means any form of non-highway ground
6    transportation that runs on rails or electromagnetic
7    guideways and "utility" means: (1) public utilities as
8    defined in Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act, (2)
9    telecommunications carriers as defined in Section 13-202
10    of the Public Utilities Act, (3) electric cooperatives as
11    defined in Section 3.4 of the Electric Supplier Act, (4)
12    telephone or telecommunications cooperatives as defined in
13    Section 13-212 of the Public Utilities Act, (5) rural
14    water or waste water systems with 10,000 connections or
15    less, (6) a holder as defined in Section 21-201 of the
16    Public Utilities Act, and (7) municipalities owning or
17    operating utility systems consisting of public utilities
18    as that term is defined in Section 11-117-2 of the
19    Illinois Municipal Code.
20        (16) Procurement expenditures necessary for the
21    Department of Public Health to provide the delivery of
22    timely newborn screening services in accordance with the
23    Newborn Metabolic Screening Act.
24        (17) Procurement expenditures necessary for the
25    Department of Agriculture, the Department of Financial and
26    Professional Regulation, the Department of Human Services,

 

 

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1    and the Department of Public Health to implement the
2    Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program and Opioid
3    Alternative Pilot Program requirements and ensure access
4    to medical cannabis for patients with debilitating medical
5    conditions in accordance with the Compassionate Use of
6    Medical Cannabis Program Act.
7        (18) This Code does not apply to any procurements
8    necessary for the Department of Agriculture, the
9    Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, the
10    Department of Human Services, the Department of Commerce
11    and Economic Opportunity, and the Department of Public
12    Health to implement the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act if
13    the applicable agency has made a good faith determination
14    that it is necessary and appropriate for the expenditure
15    to fall within this exemption and if the process is
16    conducted in a manner substantially in accordance with the
17    requirements of Sections 20-160, 25-60, 30-22, 50-5,
18    50-10, 50-10.5, 50-12, 50-13, 50-15, 50-20, 50-21, 50-35,
19    50-36, 50-37, 50-38, and 50-50 of this Code; however, for
20    Section 50-35, compliance applies only to contracts or
21    subcontracts over $100,000. Notice of each contract
22    entered into under this paragraph (18) that is related to
23    the procurement of goods and services identified in
24    paragraph (1) through (9) of this subsection shall be
25    published in the Procurement Bulletin within 14 calendar
26    days after contract execution. The Chief Procurement

 

 

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1    Officer shall prescribe the form and content of the
2    notice. Each agency shall provide the Chief Procurement
3    Officer, on a monthly basis, in the form and content
4    prescribed by the Chief Procurement Officer, a report of
5    contracts that are related to the procurement of goods and
6    services identified in this subsection. At a minimum, this
7    report shall include the name of the contractor, a
8    description of the supply or service provided, the total
9    amount of the contract, the term of the contract, and the
10    exception to this Code utilized. A copy of any or all of
11    these contracts shall be made available to the Chief
12    Procurement Officer immediately upon request. The Chief
13    Procurement Officer shall submit a report to the Governor
14    and General Assembly no later than November 1 of each year
15    that includes, at a minimum, an annual summary of the
16    monthly information reported to the Chief Procurement
17    Officer. This exemption becomes inoperative 5 years after
18    June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27).
19        (19) Acquisition of modifications or adjustments,
20    limited to assistive technology devices and assistive
21    technology services, adaptive equipment, repairs, and
22    replacement parts to provide reasonable accommodations (i)
23    that enable a qualified applicant with a disability to
24    complete the job application process and be considered for
25    the position such qualified applicant desires, (ii) that
26    modify or adjust the work environment to enable a

 

 

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1    qualified current employee with a disability to perform
2    the essential functions of the position held by that
3    employee, (iii) to enable a qualified current employee
4    with a disability to enjoy equal benefits and privileges
5    of employment as are enjoyed by other similarly situated
6    employees without disabilities, and (iv) that allow a
7    customer, client, claimant, or member of the public
8    seeking State services full use and enjoyment of and
9    access to its programs, services, or benefits.
10        For purposes of this paragraph (19):
11        "Assistive technology devices" means any item, piece
12    of equipment, or product system, whether acquired
13    commercially off the shelf, modified, or customized, that
14    is used to increase, maintain, or improve functional
15    capabilities of individuals with disabilities.
16        "Assistive technology services" means any service that
17    directly assists an individual with a disability in
18    selection, acquisition, or use of an assistive technology
19    device.
20        "Qualified" has the same meaning and use as provided
21    under the federal Americans with Disabilities Act when
22    describing an individual with a disability.
23        (20) Procurement expenditures necessary for the
24    Illinois Commerce Commission to hire third-party
25    facilitators pursuant to Sections 16-105.17 and 16-108.18
26    of the Public Utilities Act or an ombudsman pursuant to

 

 

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1    Section 16-107.5 of the Public Utilities Act, a
2    facilitator pursuant to Section 16-105.17 of the Public
3    Utilities Act, or a grid auditor pursuant to Section
4    16-105.10 of the Public Utilities Act.
5        (21) Procurement expenditures for the purchase,
6    renewal, and expansion of software, software licenses, or
7    software maintenance agreements that support the efforts
8    of the Illinois State Police to enforce, regulate, and
9    administer the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, the    
10    Firearm Concealed Carry Act, the Firearms Restraining
11    Order Act, the Firearm Dealer License Certification Act,
12    the Law Enforcement Agencies Data System (LEADS), the
13    Uniform Crime Reporting Act, the Criminal Identification
14    Act, the Illinois Uniform Conviction Information Act, and
15    the Gun Trafficking Information Act, or establish or
16    maintain record management systems necessary to conduct
17    human trafficking investigations or gun trafficking or
18    other stolen firearm investigations. This paragraph (21)
19    applies to contracts entered into on or after January 10,
20    2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1116) and the
21    renewal of contracts that are in effect on January 10,
22    2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1116).
23        (22) Contracts for project management services and
24    system integration services required for the completion of
25    the State's enterprise resource planning project. This
26    exemption becomes inoperative 5 years after June 7, 2023

 

 

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1    (the effective date of the changes made to this Section by
2    Public Act 103-8). This paragraph (22) applies to
3    contracts entered into on or after June 7, 2023 (the
4    effective date of the changes made to this Section by
5    Public Act 103-8) and the renewal of contracts that are in
6    effect on June 7, 2023 (the effective date of the changes
7    made to this Section by Public Act 103-8).
8        (23) Procurements necessary for the Department of
9    Insurance to implement the Illinois Health Benefits
10    Exchange Law if the Department of Insurance has made a
11    good faith determination that it is necessary and
12    appropriate for the expenditure to fall within this
13    exemption. The procurement process shall be conducted in a
14    manner substantially in accordance with the requirements
15    of Sections 20-160 and 25-60 and Article 50 of this Code. A
16    copy of these contracts shall be made available to the
17    Chief Procurement Officer immediately upon request. This
18    paragraph is inoperative 5 years after June 27, 2023 (the
19    effective date of Public Act 103-103).
20        (24) Contracts for public education programming,
21    noncommercial sustaining announcements, public service
22    announcements, and public awareness and education
23    messaging with the nonprofit trade associations of the
24    providers of those services that inform the public on
25    immediate and ongoing health and safety risks and hazards.
26        (25) Procurements necessary for the Department of

 

 

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1    Early Childhood to implement the Department of Early
2    Childhood Act if the Department has made a good faith
3    determination that it is necessary and appropriate for the
4    expenditure to fall within this exemption. This exemption
5    shall only be used for products and services procured
6    solely for use by the Department of Early Childhood. The
7    procurements may include those necessary to design and
8    build integrated, operational systems of programs and
9    services. The procurements may include, but are not
10    limited to, those necessary to align and update program
11    standards, integrate funding systems, design and establish
12    data and reporting systems, align and update models for
13    technical assistance and professional development, design
14    systems to manage grants and ensure compliance, design and
15    implement management and operational structures, and
16    establish new means of engaging with families, educators,
17    providers, and stakeholders. The procurement processes
18    shall be conducted in a manner substantially in accordance
19    with the requirements of Article 50 (ethics) and Sections
20    5-5 (Procurement Policy Board), 5-7 (Commission on Equity
21    and Inclusion), 20-80 (contract files), 20-120
22    (subcontractors), 20-155 (paperwork), 20-160
23    (ethics/campaign contribution prohibitions), 25-60
24    (prevailing wage), and 25-90 (prohibited and authorized
25    cybersecurity) of this Code. Beginning January 1, 2025,
26    the Department of Early Childhood shall provide a

 

 

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1    quarterly report to the General Assembly detailing a list
2    of expenditures and contracts for which the Department
3    uses this exemption. This paragraph is inoperative on and
4    after July 1, 2027.
5        (26) Procurements that are necessary for increasing
6    the recruitment and retention of State employees,
7    particularly minority candidates for employment,
8    including:
9            (A) procurements related to registration fees for
10        job fairs and other outreach and recruitment events;
11            (B) production of recruitment materials; and
12            (C) other services related to recruitment and
13        retention of State employees.
14        The exemption under this paragraph (26) applies only
15    if the State agency has made a good faith determination
16    that it is necessary and appropriate for the expenditure
17    to fall within this paragraph (26). The procurement
18    process under this paragraph (26) shall be conducted in a
19    manner substantially in accordance with the requirements
20    of Sections 20-160 and 25-60 and Article 50 of this Code. A
21    copy of these contracts shall be made available to the
22    Chief Procurement Officer immediately upon request.
23    Nothing in this paragraph (26) authorizes the replacement
24    or diminishment of State responsibilities in hiring or the
25    positions that effectuate that hiring. This paragraph (26)
26    is inoperative on and after June 30, 2029.

 

 

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1        (27) Procurements necessary for the Department of
2    Healthcare and Family Services to implement changes to the
3    State's Integrated Eligibility System to ensure the
4    system's compliance with federal implementation mandates
5    and deadlines, if the Department of Healthcare and Family
6    Services has made a good faith determination that it is
7    necessary and appropriate for the procurement to fall
8    within this exemption.
9    Notwithstanding any other provision of law, for contracts
10with an annual value of more than $100,000 entered into on or
11after October 1, 2017 under an exemption provided in any
12paragraph of this subsection (b), except paragraph (1), (2),
13or (5), each State agency shall post to the appropriate
14procurement bulletin the name of the contractor, a description
15of the supply or service provided, the total amount of the
16contract, the term of the contract, and the exception to the
17Code utilized. The chief procurement officer shall submit a
18report to the Governor and General Assembly no later than
19November 1 of each year that shall include, at a minimum, an
20annual summary of the monthly information reported to the
21chief procurement officer.
22    (c) This Code does not apply to the electric power
23procurement process provided for under Section 1-75 of the
24Illinois Power Agency Act and Section 16-111.5 of the Public
25Utilities Act. This Code does not apply to the procurement of
26technical and policy experts pursuant to Section 1-129 of the

 

 

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1Illinois Power Agency Act.
2    (d) Except for Section 20-160 and Article 50 of this Code,
3and as expressly required by Section 9.1 of the Illinois
4Lottery Law, the provisions of this Code do not apply to the
5procurement process provided for under Section 9.1 of the
6Illinois Lottery Law.
7    (e) This Code does not apply to the process used by the
8Capital Development Board to retain a person or entity to
9assist the Capital Development Board with its duties related
10to the determination of costs of a clean coal SNG brownfield
11facility, as defined by Section 1-10 of the Illinois Power
12Agency Act, as required in subsection (h-3) of Section 9-220
13of the Public Utilities Act, including calculating the range
14of capital costs, the range of operating and maintenance
15costs, or the sequestration costs or monitoring the
16construction of clean coal SNG brownfield facility for the
17full duration of construction.
18    (f) (Blank).
19    (g) (Blank).
20    (h) This Code does not apply to the process to procure or
21contracts entered into in accordance with Sections 11-5.2 and
2211-5.3 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.
23    (i) Each chief procurement officer may access records
24necessary to review whether a contract, purchase, or other
25expenditure is or is not subject to the provisions of this
26Code, unless such records would be subject to attorney-client

 

 

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1privilege.
2    (j) This Code does not apply to the process used by the
3Capital Development Board to retain an artist or work or works
4of art as required in Section 14 of the Capital Development
5Board Act.
6    (k) This Code does not apply to the process to procure
7contracts, or contracts entered into, by the State Board of
8Elections or the State Electoral Board for hearing officers
9appointed pursuant to the Election Code.
10    (l) This Code does not apply to the processes used by the
11Illinois Student Assistance Commission to procure supplies and
12services paid for from the private funds of the Illinois
13Prepaid Tuition Fund. As used in this subsection (l), "private
14funds" means funds derived from deposits paid into the
15Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund and the earnings thereon.
16    (m) This Code shall apply regardless of the source of
17funds with which contracts are paid, including federal
18assistance moneys. Except as specifically provided in this
19Code, this Code shall not apply to procurement expenditures
20necessary for the Department of Public Health to conduct the
21Healthy Illinois Survey in accordance with Section 2310-431 of
22the Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the
23Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.
24(Source: P.A. 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; 103-103, eff. 6-27-23;
25103-570, eff. 1-1-24; 103-580, eff. 12-8-23; 103-594, eff.
266-25-24; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-865, eff. 1-1-25; 104-2,

 

 

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1eff. 6-16-25; 104-417, eff. 8-15-25)
 
2    Section 26. The Intergovernmental Drug Laws Enforcement
3Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:
 
4    (30 ILCS 715/3)  (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1703)
5    Sec. 3. A Metropolitan Enforcement Group which meets the
6minimum criteria established in this Section is eligible to
7receive State grants to help defray the costs of operation. To
8be eligible a MEG must:
9        (1) Be established and operating pursuant to
10    intergovernmental contracts written and executed in
11    conformity with the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act, and
12    involve 2 or more units of local government.
13        (2) Establish a MEG Policy Board composed of an
14    elected official, or his designee, and the chief law
15    enforcement officer, or his designee, from each
16    participating unit of local government to oversee the
17    operations of the MEG and make such reports to the
18    Illinois State Police as the Illinois State Police may
19    require.
20        (3) Designate a single appropriate elected official of
21    a participating unit of local government to act as the
22    financial officer of the MEG for all participating units
23    of local government and to receive funds for the operation
24    of the MEG.

 

 

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1        (4) Limit its operations to enforcement of drug laws;
2    enforcement of Sections 10-9, 24-1, 24-1.1, 24-1.2,
3    24-1.2-5, 24-1.5, 24-1.7, 24-1.8, 24-2.1, 24-2.2, 24-3,
4    24-3.1, 24-3.2, 24-3.3, 24-3.4, 24-3.5, 24-3.7, 24-3.8,
5    24-3.9, 24-3A, 24-3B, 24-4, and 24-5 of the Criminal Code
6    of 2012; Sections 2, 3, 6.1, 9.5, and 14 of the Firearm
7    Owners Identification Card Act; and the investigation of
8    streetgang related offenses.
9        (5) Cooperate with the Illinois State Police in order
10    to assure compliance with this Act and to enable the
11    Illinois State Police to fulfill its duties under this
12    Act, and supply the Illinois State Police with all
13    information the Illinois State Police deems necessary
14    therefor.
15        (6) Receive funding of at least 50% of the total
16    operating budget of the MEG from the participating units
17    of local government.
18(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21;
19102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-34, eff. 6-9-23.)
 
20    Section 30. The Peace Officer Firearm Training Act is
21amended by changing Section 1 as follows:
 
22    (50 ILCS 710/1)  (from Ch. 85, par. 515)
23    Sec. 1. Definitions. As used in this Act:
24    (a) "Peace officer" means (i) any person who by virtue of

 

 

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1his office or public employment is vested by law with a primary
2duty to maintain public order or to make arrests for offenses,
3whether that duty extends to all offenses or is limited to
4specific offenses, and who is employed in such capacity by any
5county or municipality or (ii) any retired law enforcement
6officers qualified under federal law to carry a concealed
7weapon.
8    (a-5) "Probation officer" means a county probation officer
9authorized by the Chief Judge of the Circuit Court to carry a
10firearm as part of his or her duties under Section 12 of the
11Probation and Probation Officers Act and Section 24-2 of the
12Criminal Code of 2012.
13    (b) "Firearms" means any weapon or device defined as a
14firearm in Section 2-7.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1.1 of
15"An Act relating to the acquisition, possession and transfer
16of firearms and firearm ammunition, to provide a penalty for
17the violation thereof and to make an appropriation in
18connection therewith", approved August 3, 1967, as amended.
19(Source: P.A. 98-725, eff. 1-1-15.)
 
20    Section 31. The Counties Code is amended by changing
21Section 3-6042 as follows:
 
22    (55 ILCS 5/3-6042)
23    Sec. 3-6042. Retiring employee; purchase of service
24firearm and badge. Each Sheriff shall establish a program to

 

 

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1allow an employee of the Sheriff's Department who is honorably
2retiring in good standing to purchase either one or both of the
3following: (1) any badge previously issued to the employee by
4the Sheriff's Department; or (2) if the employee has a
5currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card, the
6service firearm issued or previously issued to the employee by
7the Sheriff's Department. The badge must be permanently and
8conspicuously marked in such a manner that the individual who
9possesses the badge is not mistaken for an actively serving
10law enforcement officer. The cost of the firearm shall be the
11replacement value of the firearm and not the firearm's fair
12market value.
13(Source: P.A. 102-719, eff. 5-6-22.)
 
14    Section 35. The School Code is amended by changing
15Sections 10-22.6, 10-27.1A and 34-8.05 as follows:
 
16    (105 ILCS 5/10-22.6)  (from Ch. 122, par. 10-22.6)
17    Sec. 10-22.6. Suspension or expulsion of students; school
18searches.
19    (a) To expel students guilty of gross disobedience or
20misconduct, including gross disobedience or misconduct
21perpetuated by electronic means, pursuant to subsection (b-20)
22of this Section, and no action shall lie against them for such
23expulsion. Expulsion shall take place only after the parents
24or guardians have been requested to appear at a meeting of the

 

 

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1board, or with a hearing officer appointed by it, to discuss
2their child's behavior. Such request shall be made by
3registered or certified mail and shall state the time, place
4and purpose of the meeting. The board, or a hearing officer
5appointed by it, at such meeting shall state the reasons for
6dismissal and the date on which the expulsion is to become
7effective. If a hearing officer is appointed by the board, the
8hearing officer shall report to the board a written summary of
9the evidence heard at the meeting and the board may take such
10action thereon as it finds appropriate. If the board acts to
11expel a student, the written expulsion decision shall detail
12the specific reasons why removing the student from the
13learning environment is in the best interest of the school.
14The expulsion decision shall also include a rationale as to
15the specific duration of the expulsion. An expelled student
16may be immediately transferred to an alternative program in
17the manner provided in Article 13A or 13B of this Code. A
18student must not be denied transfer because of the expulsion,
19except in cases in which such transfer is deemed to cause a
20threat to the safety of students or staff in the alternative
21program.
22    (b) To suspend or by policy to authorize the
23superintendent of the district or the principal, assistant
24principal, or dean of students of any school to suspend
25students guilty of gross disobedience or misconduct, or to
26suspend students guilty of gross disobedience or misconduct on

 

 

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1the school bus from riding the school bus, pursuant to
2subsections (b-15) and (b-20) of this Section, and no action
3shall lie against them for such suspension. The board may by
4policy authorize the superintendent of the district or the
5principal, assistant principal, or dean of students of any
6school to suspend students guilty of such acts for a period not
7to exceed 10 school days. If a student is suspended due to
8gross disobedience or misconduct on a school bus, the board
9may suspend the student in excess of 10 school days for safety
10reasons.
11    Any suspension shall be reported immediately to the
12parents or guardians of a student along with a full statement
13of the reasons for such suspension and a notice of their right
14to a review. The school board must be given a summary of the
15notice, including the reason for the suspension and the
16suspension length. Upon request of the parents or guardians,
17the school board or a hearing officer appointed by it shall
18review such action of the superintendent or principal,
19assistant principal, or dean of students. At such review, the
20parents or guardians of the student may appear and discuss the
21suspension with the board or its hearing officer. If a hearing
22officer is appointed by the board, he shall report to the board
23a written summary of the evidence heard at the meeting. After
24its hearing or upon receipt of the written report of its
25hearing officer, the board may take such action as it finds
26appropriate. If a student is suspended pursuant to this

 

 

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1subsection (b), the board shall, in the written suspension
2decision, detail the specific act of gross disobedience or
3misconduct resulting in the decision to suspend. The
4suspension decision shall also include a rationale as to the
5specific duration of the suspension.
6    (b-5) Among the many possible disciplinary interventions
7and consequences available to school officials, school
8exclusions, such as out-of-school suspensions and expulsions,
9are the most serious. School officials shall limit the number
10and duration of expulsions and suspensions to the greatest
11extent practicable, and it is recommended that they use them
12only for legitimate educational purposes. To ensure that
13students are not excluded from school unnecessarily, it is
14recommended that school officials consider forms of
15non-exclusionary discipline prior to using out-of-school
16suspensions or expulsions.
17    (b-10) Unless otherwise required by federal law or this
18Code, school boards may not institute zero-tolerance policies
19by which school administrators are required to suspend or
20expel students for particular behaviors.
21    (b-15) Out-of-school suspensions of 3 days or less may be
22used only if the student's continuing presence in school would
23pose a threat to school safety or a disruption to other
24students' learning opportunities. For purposes of this
25subsection (b-15), "threat to school safety or a disruption to
26other students' learning opportunities" shall be determined on

 

 

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1a case-by-case basis by the school board or its designee.
2School officials shall make all reasonable efforts to resolve
3such threats, address such disruptions, and minimize the
4length of suspensions to the greatest extent practicable.
5    (b-20) Unless otherwise required by this Code,
6out-of-school suspensions of longer than 3 days, expulsions,
7and disciplinary removals to alternative schools may be used
8only if other appropriate and available behavioral and
9disciplinary interventions have been exhausted and the
10student's continuing presence in school would either (i) pose
11a threat to the safety of other students, staff, or members of
12the school community or (ii) substantially disrupt, impede, or
13interfere with the operation of the school. For purposes of
14this subsection (b-20), "threat to the safety of other
15students, staff, or members of the school community" and
16"substantially disrupt, impede, or interfere with the
17operation of the school" shall be determined on a case-by-case
18basis by school officials. For purposes of this subsection
19(b-20), the determination of whether "appropriate and
20available behavioral and disciplinary interventions have been
21exhausted" shall be made by school officials. School officials
22shall make all reasonable efforts to resolve such threats,
23address such disruptions, and minimize the length of student
24exclusions to the greatest extent practicable. Within the
25suspension decision described in subsection (b) of this
26Section or the expulsion decision described in subsection (a)

 

 

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1of this Section, it shall be documented whether other
2interventions were attempted or whether it was determined that
3there were no other appropriate and available interventions.
4    (b-25) Students who are suspended out-of-school for longer
5than 3 school days shall be provided appropriate and available
6support services during the period of their suspension. For
7purposes of this subsection (b-25), "appropriate and available
8support services" shall be determined by school authorities.
9Within the suspension decision described in subsection (b) of
10this Section, it shall be documented whether such services are
11to be provided or whether it was determined that there are no
12such appropriate and available services.
13    A school district may refer students who are expelled to
14appropriate and available support services.
15    A school district shall create a policy to facilitate the
16re-engagement of students who are suspended out-of-school,
17expelled, or returning from an alternative school setting. In
18consultation with stakeholders deemed appropriate by the State
19Board of Education, the State Board of Education shall draft
20and publish guidance for the re-engagement of students who are
21suspended out-of-school, expelled, or returning from an
22alternative school setting in accordance with this Section and
23Section 13A-4 on or before July 1, 2025.
24    (b-30) A school district shall create a policy by which
25suspended students, including those students suspended from
26the school bus who do not have alternate transportation to

 

 

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1school, shall have the opportunity to make up work for
2equivalent academic credit. It shall be the responsibility of
3a student's parents or guardians to notify school officials
4that a student suspended from the school bus does not have
5alternate transportation to school.
6    (b-35) In all suspension review hearings conducted under
7subsection (b) or expulsion hearings conducted under
8subsection (a), a student may disclose any factor to be
9considered in mitigation, including his or her status as a
10parent, expectant parent, or victim of domestic or sexual
11violence, as defined in Article 26A. A representative of the
12parent's or guardian's choice, or of the student's choice if
13emancipated, must be permitted to represent the student
14throughout the proceedings and to address the school board or
15its appointed hearing officer. With the approval of the
16student's parent or guardian, or of the student if
17emancipated, a support person must be permitted to accompany
18the student to any disciplinary hearings or proceedings. The
19representative or support person must comply with any rules of
20the school district's hearing process. If the representative
21or support person violates the rules or engages in behavior or
22advocacy that harasses, abuses, or intimidates either party, a
23witness, or anyone else in attendance at the hearing, the
24representative or support person may be prohibited from
25further participation in the hearing or proceeding. A
26suspension or expulsion proceeding under this subsection

 

 

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1(b-35) must be conducted independently from any ongoing
2criminal investigation or proceeding, and an absence of
3pending or possible criminal charges, criminal investigations,
4or proceedings may not be a factor in school disciplinary
5decisions.
6    (b-40) During a suspension review hearing conducted under
7subsection (b) or an expulsion hearing conducted under
8subsection (a) that involves allegations of sexual violence by
9the student who is subject to discipline, neither the student
10nor his or her representative shall directly question nor have
11direct contact with the alleged victim. The student who is
12subject to discipline or his or her representative may, at the
13discretion and direction of the school board or its appointed
14hearing officer, suggest questions to be posed by the school
15board or its appointed hearing officer to the alleged victim.
16    (c) A school board must invite a representative from a
17local mental health agency to consult with the board at the
18meeting whenever there is evidence that mental illness may be
19the cause of a student's expulsion or suspension.
20    (c-5) School districts shall make reasonable efforts to
21provide ongoing professional development to all school
22personnel, school board members, and school resource officers
23on the requirements of this Section and Section 10-20.14, the
24adverse consequences of school exclusion and justice-system
25involvement, effective classroom management strategies,
26culturally responsive discipline, trauma-responsive learning

 

 

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1environments, as defined in subsection (b) of Section 3-11,
2the appropriate and available supportive services for the
3promotion of student attendance and engagement, and
4developmentally appropriate disciplinary methods that promote
5positive and healthy school climates.
6    (d) The board may expel a student for a definite period of
7time not to exceed 2 calendar years, as determined on a
8case-by-case basis. A student who is determined to have
9brought one of the following objects to school, any
10school-sponsored activity or event, or any activity or event
11that bears a reasonable relationship to school shall be
12expelled for a period of not less than one year:
13        (1) A firearm. For the purposes of this Section,
14    "firearm" means any gun, rifle, shotgun, weapon as defined
15    by Section 921 of Title 18 of the United States Code,
16    firearm as defined in Section 2-7.5 1.1 of the Firearm
17    Owners Identification Card Act, or firearm as defined in
18    Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012. The expulsion
19    period under this subdivision (1) may be modified by the
20    superintendent, and the superintendent's determination may
21    be modified by the board on a case-by-case basis.
22        (2) A knife, brass knuckles or other knuckle weapon
23    regardless of its composition, a billy club, or any other
24    object if used or attempted to be used to cause bodily
25    harm, including "look alikes" of any firearm as defined in
26    subdivision (1) of this subsection (d). The expulsion

 

 

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1    requirement under this subdivision (2) may be modified by
2    the superintendent, and the superintendent's determination
3    may be modified by the board on a case-by-case basis.
4Expulsion or suspension shall be construed in a manner
5consistent with the federal Individuals with Disabilities
6Education Act. A student who is subject to suspension or
7expulsion as provided in this Section may be eligible for a
8transfer to an alternative school program in accordance with
9Article 13A of the School Code.
10    (d-5) The board may suspend or by regulation authorize the
11superintendent of the district or the principal, assistant
12principal, or dean of students of any school to suspend a
13student for a period not to exceed 10 school days or may expel
14a student for a definite period of time not to exceed 2
15calendar years, as determined on a case-by-case basis, if (i)
16that student has been determined to have made an explicit
17threat on an Internet website against a school employee, a
18student, or any school-related personnel, (ii) the Internet
19website through which the threat was made is a site that was
20accessible within the school at the time the threat was made or
21was available to third parties who worked or studied within
22the school grounds at the time the threat was made, and (iii)
23the threat could be reasonably interpreted as threatening to
24the safety and security of the threatened individual because
25of the individual's duties or employment status or status as a
26student inside the school.

 

 

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1    (e) To maintain order and security in the schools, school
2authorities may inspect and search places and areas such as
3lockers, desks, parking lots, and other school property and
4equipment owned or controlled by the school, as well as
5personal effects left in those places and areas by students,
6without notice to or the consent of the student, and without a
7search warrant. As a matter of public policy, the General
8Assembly finds that students have no reasonable expectation of
9privacy in these places and areas or in their personal effects
10left in these places and areas. School authorities may request
11the assistance of law enforcement officials for the purpose of
12conducting inspections and searches of lockers, desks, parking
13lots, and other school property and equipment owned or
14controlled by the school for illegal drugs, weapons, or other
15illegal or dangerous substances or materials, including
16searches conducted through the use of specially trained dogs.
17If a search conducted in accordance with this Section produces
18evidence that the student has violated or is violating either
19the law, local ordinance, or the school's policies or rules,
20such evidence may be seized by school authorities, and
21disciplinary action may be taken. School authorities may also
22turn over such evidence to law enforcement authorities.
23    (f) Suspension or expulsion may include suspension or
24expulsion from school and all school activities and a
25prohibition from being present on school grounds.
26    (g) A school district may adopt a policy providing that if

 

 

SB3171- 108 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1a student is suspended or expelled for any reason from any
2public or private school in this or any other state, the
3student must complete the entire term of the suspension or
4expulsion in an alternative school program under Article 13A
5of this Code or an alternative learning opportunities program
6under Article 13B of this Code before being admitted into the
7school district if there is no threat to the safety of students
8or staff in the alternative program. A school district that
9adopts a policy under this subsection (g) must include a
10provision allowing for consideration of any mitigating
11factors, including, but not limited to, a student's status as
12a parent, expectant parent, or victim of domestic or sexual
13violence, as defined in Article 26A.
14    (h) School officials shall not advise or encourage
15students to drop out voluntarily due to behavioral or academic
16difficulties.
17    (i) In this subsection (i), "municipal code violation"
18means the violation of a rule or regulation established by a
19local government authority, authorized by Section 1-2-1 of the
20Illinois Municipal Code.
21    A student must not be issued a monetary fine, fee, ticket,
22or citation as a school-based disciplinary consequence or for
23a municipal code violation on school grounds during school
24hours or while taking school transportation by any person,
25though this shall not preclude requiring a student to provide
26restitution for lost, stolen, or damaged property.

 

 

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1    This subsection (i) does not modify school disciplinary
2responses under this Section or Section 10-20.14 of this Code
3that existed before the effective date of this amendatory Act
4of the 104th General Assembly or responses to alleged
5delinquent or criminal conduct set forth in this Code, Article
6V of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, or the Criminal Code of
72012. This subsection (i) does not apply to violations of
8traffic, boating, or fish and game laws.
9    (j) Subsections (a) through (i) of this Section shall
10apply to elementary and secondary schools, charter schools,
11special charter districts, and school districts organized
12under Article 34 of this Code.
13    (k) Through June 30, 2026, the expulsion of students
14enrolled in programs funded under Section 1C-2 of this Code is
15subject to the requirements under paragraph (7) of subsection
16(a) of Section 2-3.71 of this Code.
17    (k-5) On and after July 1, 2026, the expulsion of children
18enrolled in programs funded under Section 15-25 of the
19Department of Early Childhood Act is subject to the
20requirements of paragraph (7) of subsection (a) of Section
2115-30 of the Department of Early Childhood Act.
22    (l) An in-school suspension program provided by a school
23district for any students in kindergarten through grade 12 may
24focus on promoting non-violent conflict resolution and
25positive interaction with other students and school personnel.
26A school district may employ a school social worker or a

 

 

SB3171- 110 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1licensed mental health professional to oversee an in-school
2suspension program in kindergarten through grade 12.
3(Source: P.A. 103-594, eff. 6-25-24; 103-896, eff. 8-9-24;
4104-417, eff. 8-15-25; 104-430, eff. 8-20-25.)
 
5    (105 ILCS 5/10-27.1A)
6    (Text of Section from P.A. 103-609 and 104-174)
7    Sec. 10-27.1A. Firearms in schools.
8    (a) All school officials, including teachers, school
9counselors, and support staff, shall immediately notify the
10office of the principal in the event that they:
11        (1) observe any person in possession of a firearm on
12    school grounds;
13        (2) become aware of any person in possession of a
14    firearm on school grounds; or
15        (3) become aware of any threat of gun violence on
16    school grounds;
17provided that taking such immediate action to notify the
18office of the principal would not immediately endanger the
19health, safety, or welfare of students who are under the
20direct supervision of the school official or the school
21official. If the health, safety, or welfare of students under
22the direct supervision of the school official or of the school
23official is immediately endangered, the school official shall
24notify the office of the principal as soon as the students
25under his or her supervision and he or she are no longer under

 

 

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1immediate danger. A report is not required by this Section
2when the school official knows that the person in possession
3of the firearm is a law enforcement official engaged in the
4conduct of his or her official duties. Any school official
5acting in good faith who makes such a report under this Section
6shall have immunity from any civil or criminal liability that
7might otherwise be incurred as a result of making the report.
8The identity of the school official making such report shall
9not be disclosed except as expressly and specifically
10authorized by law. Knowingly and willfully failing to comply
11with this Section is a petty offense. A second or subsequent
12offense is a Class C misdemeanor.
13    (b) Upon receiving a report from any school official
14pursuant to this Section, or from any other person, the
15principal or his or her designee shall immediately notify a
16local law enforcement agency. If the person found to be in
17possession of a firearm on school grounds is a student, the
18principal or his or her designee shall also immediately notify
19that student's parent or guardian. If the report pertains to a
20threat of firearm violence made by a student, the principal or
21the principal's designee shall attempt to notify that
22student's parent or guardian as soon as possible. The
23principal or principal's designee shall further attempt to
24contact the student's parent or guardian so that the parent or
25guardian may ensure that the student does not have access to a
26firearm. Any principal or his or her designee acting in good

 

 

SB3171- 112 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1faith who makes such reports under this Section shall have
2immunity from any civil or criminal liability that might
3otherwise be incurred or imposed as a result of making the
4reports. Knowingly and willfully failing to comply with this
5Section is a petty offense. A second or subsequent offense is a
6Class C misdemeanor. If the person found to be in possession of
7the firearm on school grounds is a minor, the law enforcement
8agency shall detain that minor until such time as the agency
9makes a determination pursuant to clause (a) of subsection (1)
10of Section 5-401 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, as to
11whether the agency reasonably believes that the minor is
12delinquent. If the law enforcement agency determines that
13probable cause exists to believe that the minor committed a
14violation of item (4) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the
15Criminal Code of 2012 while on school grounds, the agency
16shall detain the minor for processing pursuant to Section
175-407 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.
18    (c) Upon receipt of any written, electronic, or verbal
19report from any school personnel regarding a verified incident
20involving a firearm in a school or on school owned or leased
21property, including any conveyance owned, leased, or used by
22the school for the transport of students or school personnel,
23the superintendent or his or her designee shall report all
24such firearm-related incidents occurring in a school or on
25school property to the local law enforcement authorities
26immediately.

 

 

SB3171- 113 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    (c-5) Schools shall report any written, electronic, or
2verbal report of a verified incident involving a firearm made
3under subsection (c) to the State Board of Education through
4existing school incident reporting systems as they occur
5during the year by no later than August 1 of each year. The
6State Board of Education shall report data by school district,
7as collected from school districts, and make it available to
8the public via its website. The local law enforcement
9authority shall, by March 1 of each year, report the required
10data from the previous year to the Illinois State Police's
11Illinois Uniform Crime Reporting Program, which shall be
12included in its annual Crime in Illinois report.
13    (d) As used in this Section, the term "firearm" shall have
14the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2-7.5 of the Criminal
15Code of 2012 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card
16Act.
17    As used in this Section, the term "school" means any
18public or private elementary or secondary school.
19    As used in this Section, the term "school grounds"
20includes the real property comprising any school, any
21conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to
22transport students to or from school or a school-related
23activity, or any public way within 1,000 feet of the real
24property comprising any school.
25(Source: P.A. 102-197, eff. 7-30-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21;
26102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-34, eff. 6-9-23; 103-609, eff.

 

 

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17-1-24; 104-174, eff. 8-15-25.)
 
2    (Text of Section from P.A. 103-780 and 104-174)
3    Sec. 10-27.1A. Firearms in schools.
4    (a) All school officials, including teachers, school
5counselors, and support staff, shall immediately notify the
6office of the principal in the event that they:
7        (1) observe any person in possession of a firearm on
8    school grounds;
9        (2) become aware of any person in possession of a
10    firearm on school grounds; or
11        (3) become aware of any threat of gun violence on
12    school grounds;
13provided that taking such immediate action to notify the
14office of the principal would not immediately endanger the
15health, safety, or welfare of students who are under the
16direct supervision of the school official or the school
17official. If the health, safety, or welfare of students under
18the direct supervision of the school official or of the school
19official is immediately endangered, the school official shall
20notify the office of the principal as soon as the students
21under his or her supervision and he or she are no longer under
22immediate danger. A report is not required by this Section
23when the school official knows that the person in possession
24of the firearm is a law enforcement official engaged in the
25conduct of his or her official duties. Any school official

 

 

SB3171- 115 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1acting in good faith who makes such a report under this Section
2shall have immunity from any civil or criminal liability that
3might otherwise be incurred as a result of making the report.
4The identity of the school official making such report shall
5not be disclosed except as expressly and specifically
6authorized by law. Knowingly and willfully failing to comply
7with this Section is a petty offense. A second or subsequent
8offense is a Class C misdemeanor.
9    (b) Upon receiving a report from any school official
10pursuant to this Section, or from any other person, the
11principal or his or her designee shall immediately notify a
12local law enforcement agency. If the person found to be in
13possession of a firearm on school grounds is a student, the
14principal or his or her designee shall also immediately notify
15that student's parent or guardian. If the report pertains to a
16threat of firearm violence made by a student, the principal or
17the principal's designee shall attempt to notify that
18student's parent or guardian as soon as possible. The
19principal or principal's designee shall further attempt to
20contact the student's parent or guardian so that the parent or
21guardian may ensure that the student does not have access to a
22firearm. Any principal or his or her designee acting in good
23faith who makes such reports under this Section shall have
24immunity from any civil or criminal liability that might
25otherwise be incurred or imposed as a result of making the
26reports. Knowingly and willfully failing to comply with this

 

 

SB3171- 116 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1Section is a petty offense. A second or subsequent offense is a
2Class C misdemeanor. If the person found to be in possession of
3the firearm on school grounds is a minor, the law enforcement
4agency shall detain that minor until such time as the agency
5makes a determination pursuant to clause (a) of subsection (1)
6of Section 5-401 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, as to
7whether the agency reasonably believes that the minor is
8delinquent. If the law enforcement agency determines that
9probable cause exists to believe that the minor committed a
10violation of item (4) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the
11Criminal Code of 2012 while on school grounds, the agency
12shall detain the minor for processing pursuant to Section
135-407 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.
14    (c) Upon receipt of any written, electronic, or verbal
15report from any school personnel regarding a verified incident
16involving a firearm in a school or on school owned or leased
17property, including any conveyance owned, leased, or used by
18the school for the transport of students or school personnel,
19the superintendent or his or her designee shall report all
20such firearm-related incidents occurring in a school or on
21school property to the local law enforcement authorities
22immediately.
23    (c-5) Schools shall report any written, electronic, or
24verbal report of a verified incident involving a firearm made
25under subsection (c) to the State Board of Education through
26existing school incident reporting systems as they occur

 

 

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1during the year by no later than July 31 for the previous
2school year. The State Board of Education shall report data by
3school district, as collected from school districts, and make
4it available to the public via its website. The local law
5enforcement authority shall, by March 1 of each year, report
6the required data from the previous year to the Illinois State
7Police's Illinois Uniform Crime Reporting Program, which shall
8be included in its annual Crime in Illinois report.
9    (d) As used in this Section, the term "firearm" shall have
10the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2-7.5 of the Criminal
11Code of 2012 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card
12Act.
13    As used in this Section, the term "school" means any
14public or private elementary or secondary school.
15    As used in this Section, the term "school grounds"
16includes the real property comprising any school, any
17conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to
18transport students to or from school or a school-related
19activity, or any public way within 1,000 feet of the real
20property comprising any school.
21(Source: P.A. 103-34, eff. 6-9-23; 103-780, eff. 8-2-24;
22104-174, eff. 8-15-25.)
 
23    (105 ILCS 5/34-8.05)
24    Sec. 34-8.05. Reporting firearms in schools. On or after
25January 1, 1997, upon receipt of any written, electronic, or

 

 

SB3171- 118 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1verbal report from any school personnel regarding a verified
2incident involving a firearm in a school or on school owned or
3leased property, including any conveyance owned, leased, or
4used by the school for the transport of students or school
5personnel, the general superintendent or his or her designee
6shall report all such firearm-related incidents occurring in a
7school or on school property to the local law enforcement
8authorities no later than 24 hours after the occurrence of the
9incident.
10    The general superintendent or the general superintendent's
11designee shall report any written, electronic, or verbal
12report of a verified incident involving a firearm to the State
13Board of Education through existing school incident reporting
14systems as they occur during the year by no later than July 31
15for the previous school year. The State Board of Education
16shall report the data and make it available to the public via
17its website. The local law enforcement authority shall, by
18March 1 of each year, report the required data from the
19previous year to the Illinois State Police's Illinois Uniform
20Crime Reporting Program, which shall be included in its annual
21Crime in Illinois report.
22    As used in this Section, the term "firearm" shall have the
23meaning ascribed to it in Section 2-7.5 of the Criminal Code of
242012 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.
25(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 103-780, eff. 8-2-24.)
 

 

 

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1    Section 40. The Illinois Explosives Act is amended by
2changing Section 2005 as follows:
 
3    (225 ILCS 210/2005)  (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 1-2005)
4    Sec. 2005. Qualifications for licensure.
5    (a) No person shall qualify to hold a license who:
6        (1) is under 21 years of age;
7        (2) has been convicted in any court of a crime
8    punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year;
9        (3) is under indictment for a crime punishable by
10    imprisonment for a term exceeding one year;
11        (4) is a fugitive from justice;
12        (5) is an unlawful user of or addicted to alcohol or
13    any controlled substance as defined in Section 102 of the
14    federal Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. Sec. 802 et
15    seq.);
16        (6) has been adjudicated a person with a mental
17    disability as defined in Section 6-103.1 of the Mental
18    Health and Developmental Disabilities Code 1.1 of the
19    Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or the person's
20    FOID card is suspended or revoked; or
21        (7) is not a legal citizen of the United States or
22    lawfully admitted for permanent residence.
23    (b) A person who has been granted a "relief from
24disabilities" regarding criminal convictions and indictments,
25pursuant to the federal Safe Explosives Act (18 U.S.C. Sec.

 

 

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1845) may receive a license provided all other qualifications
2under this Act are met.
3(Source: P.A. 104-420, eff. 1-1-26.)
 
4    Section 45. The Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private
5Security, and Locksmith Act of 2004 is amended by changing
6Sections 35-30 and 35-35 as follows:
 
7    (225 ILCS 447/35-30)
8    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2029)
9    Sec. 35-30. Employee requirements. All employees of a
10licensed agency, other than those exempted, shall apply for a
11permanent employee registration card. The holder of an agency
12license issued under this Act, known in this Section as
13"employer", may employ in the conduct of the employer's
14business employees under the following provisions:    
15    (a) No person shall be issued a permanent employee
16registration card who:
17        (1) Is younger than 18 years of age.
18        (2) Is younger than 21 years of age if the services
19    will include being armed.
20        (3) Has been determined by the Department to be unfit
21    by reason of conviction of an offense in this or another
22    state, including registration as a sex offender, but not
23    including a traffic offense. Persons convicted of felonies
24    involving bodily harm, weapons, violence, or theft within

 

 

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1    the previous 10 years shall be presumed to be unfit for
2    registration. The Department shall adopt rules for making
3    those determinations that shall afford the applicant due
4    process of law.
5        (4) Has had a license or permanent employee
6    registration card denied, suspended, or revoked under this
7    Act (i) within one year before the date the person's
8    application for permanent employee registration card is
9    received by the Department; and (ii) that refusal, denial,
10    suspension, or revocation was based on any provision of
11    this Act other than Section 40-50, item (6) or (8) of
12    subsection (a) of Section 15-10, subsection (b) of Section
13    15-10, item (6) or (8) of subsection (a) of Section 20-10,
14    subsection (b) of Section 20-10, item (6) or (8) of
15    subsection (a) of Section 25-10, subsection (b) of Section
16    25-10, item (7) of subsection (a) of Section 30-10,
17    subsection (b) of Section 30-10, or Section 10-40.
18        (5) Has been declared incompetent by any court of
19    competent jurisdiction by reason of mental disease or
20    defect and has not been restored.
21        (6) Has been dishonorably discharged from the armed
22    services of the United States.    
23    (b) No person may be employed by a private detective
24agency, private security contractor agency, private alarm
25contractor agency, fingerprint vendor agency, or locksmith
26agency under this Section until the person has executed and

 

 

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1furnished to the employer, on forms furnished by the
2Department, a verified statement to be known as "Employee's
3Statement" setting forth:
4        (1) The person's full name, age, and residence
5    address.
6        (2) The business or occupation engaged in for the 5
7    years immediately before the date of the execution of the
8    statement, the place where the business or occupation was
9    engaged in, and the names of employers, if any.
10        (3) That the person has not had a license or employee
11    registration denied, revoked, or suspended under this Act
12    (i) within one year before the date the person's
13    application for permanent employee registration card is
14    received by the Department; and (ii) that refusal, denial,
15    suspension, or revocation was based on any provision of
16    this Act other than Section 40-50, item (6) or (8) of
17    subsection (a) of Section 15-10, subsection (b) of Section
18    15-10, item (6) or (8) of subsection (a) of Section 20-10,
19    subsection (b) of Section 20-10, item (6) or (8) of
20    subsection (a) of Section 25-10, subsection (b) of Section
21    25-10, item (7) of subsection (a) of Section 30-10,
22    subsection (b) of Section 30-10, or Section 10-40.
23        (4) Any conviction of a felony or misdemeanor.
24        (5) Any declaration of incompetence by a court of
25    competent jurisdiction that has not been restored.
26        (6) Any dishonorable discharge from the armed services

 

 

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1    of the United States.
2        (7) Any other information as may be required by any
3    rule of the Department to show the good character,
4    competency, and integrity of the person executing the
5    statement.
6    (c) Each applicant for a permanent employee registration
7card shall have the applicant's fingerprints submitted to the
8Illinois State Police in an electronic format that complies
9with the form and manner for requesting and furnishing
10criminal history record information as prescribed by the
11Illinois State Police. These fingerprints shall be checked
12against the Illinois State Police and Federal Bureau of
13Investigation criminal history record databases now and
14hereafter filed. The Illinois State Police shall charge
15applicants a fee for conducting the criminal history records
16check, which shall be deposited in the State Police Services
17Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the records check.
18The Illinois State Police shall furnish, pursuant to positive
19identification, records of Illinois convictions to the
20Department. The Department may require applicants to pay a
21separate fingerprinting fee, either to the Department or
22directly to the vendor. The Department, in its discretion, may
23allow an applicant who does not have reasonable access to a
24designated vendor to provide the applicant's fingerprints in
25an alternative manner. The Department, in its discretion, may
26also use other procedures in performing or obtaining criminal

 

 

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1background checks of applicants. Instead of submitting the
2applicant's fingerprints, an individual may submit proof that
3is satisfactory to the Department that an equivalent security
4clearance has been conducted. Also, an individual who has
5retired as a peace officer within 12 months of application may
6submit verification, on forms provided by the Department and
7signed by the applicant's employer, of the applicant's
8previous full-time employment as a peace officer.
9    (d) The Department shall issue a permanent employee
10registration card, in a form the Department prescribes, to all
11qualified applicants. The holder of a permanent employee
12registration card shall carry the card at all times while
13actually engaged in the performance of the duties of the
14employee's employment. Expiration and requirements for renewal
15of permanent employee registration cards shall be established
16by rule of the Department. Possession of a permanent employee
17registration card does not in any way imply that the holder of
18the card is employed by an agency unless the permanent
19employee registration card is accompanied by the employee
20identification card required by subsection (f) of this
21Section.
22    (e) Each employer shall maintain a record of each employee
23that is accessible to the duly authorized representatives of
24the Department. The record shall contain the following
25information:
26        (1) A photograph taken within 10 days of the date that

 

 

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1    the employee begins employment with the employer. The
2    photograph shall be replaced with a current photograph
3    every 3 calendar years.
4        (2) The Employee's Statement specified in subsection
5    (b) of this Section.
6        (3) All correspondence or documents relating to the
7    character and integrity of the employee received by the
8    employer from any official source or law enforcement
9    agency.
10        (4) In the case of former employees, the employee
11    identification card of that person issued under subsection
12    (f) of this Section. Each employee record shall duly note
13    if the employee is employed in an armed capacity. Armed
14    employee files shall contain a copy of an active firearm
15    owner's identification card and a copy of an active
16    firearm control card. Each employer shall maintain a
17    record for each armed employee of each instance in which
18    the employee's weapon was discharged during the course of
19    the employee's professional duties or activities. The
20    record shall be maintained on forms provided by the
21    Department, a copy of which must be filed with the
22    Department within 15 days of an instance. The record shall
23    include the date and time of the occurrence, the
24    circumstances involved in the occurrence, and any other
25    information as the Department may require. Failure to
26    provide this information to the Department or failure to

 

 

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1    maintain the record as a part of each armed employee's
2    permanent file is grounds for disciplinary action. The
3    Department, upon receipt of a report, shall have the
4    authority to make any investigation it considers
5    appropriate into any occurrence in which an employee's
6    weapon was discharged and to take disciplinary action as
7    may be appropriate.
8        (5) A copy of the employee's permanent employee
9    registration card or a copy of the Department's "License
10    Lookup" Webpage showing that the employee has been issued
11    a valid permanent employee registration card by the
12    Department.     
13    The Department may, by rule, prescribe further record
14requirements.
15    (f) Every employer shall furnish an employee
16identification card to each of the employer's employees. This
17employee identification card shall contain a recent photograph
18of the employee, the employee's name, the name and agency
19license number of the employer, the employee's personal
20description, the signature of the employer, the signature of
21that employee, the date of issuance, and an employee
22identification card number.
23    (g) No employer may issue an employee identification card
24to any person who is not employed by the employer in accordance
25with this Section or falsely state or represent that a person
26is or has been in the employer's employ. It is unlawful for an

 

 

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1applicant for registered employment to file with the
2Department the fingerprints of a person other than himself or
3herself.
4    (h) Every employer shall obtain the identification card of
5every employee who terminates employment with the employer.
6    (i) Every employer shall maintain a separate roster of the
7names of all employees currently working in an armed capacity
8and submit the roster to the Department on request.
9    (j) No agency may employ any person to perform a licensed
10activity under this Act unless the person possesses a valid
11permanent employee registration card or a valid license under
12this Act, or is exempt pursuant to subsection (n).
13    (k) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (j), an
14agency may employ a person in a temporary capacity if all of
15the following conditions are met:
16        (1) The agency completes in its entirety and submits
17    to the Department an application for a permanent employee
18    registration card, including the required fingerprint
19    receipt and fees.
20        (2) The agency has verification from the Department
21    that the applicant has no record of any criminal
22    conviction pursuant to the criminal history check
23    conducted by the Illinois State Police. The agency shall
24    maintain the verification of the results of the Illinois
25    State Police criminal history check as part of the
26    employee record as required under subsection (e) of this

 

 

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1    Section.
2        (3) The agency exercises due diligence to ensure that
3    the person is qualified under the requirements of this Act
4    to be issued a permanent employee registration card.
5        (4) The agency maintains a separate roster of the
6    names of all employees whose applications are currently
7    pending with the Department and submits the roster to the
8    Department on a monthly basis. Rosters are to be
9    maintained by the agency for a period of at least 24
10    months.
11    An agency may employ only a permanent employee applicant
12for which it either submitted a permanent employee application
13and all required forms and fees or it confirms with the
14Department that a permanent employee application and all
15required forms and fees have been submitted by another agency,
16licensee or the permanent employee and all other requirements
17of this Section are met.
18    The Department shall have the authority to revoke, without
19a hearing, the temporary authority of an individual to work
20upon receipt of Federal Bureau of Investigation fingerprint
21data or a report of another official authority indicating a
22criminal conviction. If the Department has not received a
23temporary employee's Federal Bureau of Investigation
24fingerprint data within 120 days of the date the Department
25received the Illinois State Police fingerprint data, the
26Department may, at its discretion, revoke the employee's

 

 

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1temporary authority to work with 15 days written notice to the
2individual and the employing agency.
3    An agency may not employ a person in a temporary capacity
4if it knows or reasonably should have known that the person has
5been convicted of a crime under the laws of this State, has
6been convicted in another state of any crime that is a crime
7under the laws of this State, has been convicted of any crime
8in a federal court, or has been posted as an unapproved
9applicant by the Department. Notice by the Department to the
10agency, via certified mail, personal delivery, electronic
11mail, or posting on the Department's Internet site accessible
12to the agency that the person has been convicted of a crime
13shall be deemed constructive knowledge of the conviction on
14the part of the agency. The Department may adopt rules to
15implement this subsection (k).
16    (l) No person may be employed under this Section in any
17capacity if:
18        (1) the person, while so employed, is being paid by
19    the United States or any political subdivision for the
20    time so employed in addition to any payments the person
21    may receive from the employer; or
22        (2) the person wears any portion of the person's
23    official uniform, emblem of authority, or equipment while
24    so employed.
25    (m) If information is discovered affecting the
26registration of a person whose fingerprints were submitted

 

 

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1under this Section, the Department shall so notify the agency
2that submitted the fingerprints on behalf of that person.
3    (n) Peace officers shall be exempt from the requirements
4of this Section relating to permanent employee registration
5cards. The agency shall remain responsible for any peace
6officer employed under this exemption, regardless of whether
7the peace officer is compensated as an employee or as an
8independent contractor and as further defined by rule.
9    (o) Persons who have no access to confidential or security
10information, who do not go to a client's or prospective
11client's residence or place of business, and who otherwise do
12not provide traditional security services are exempt from
13employee registration. Examples of exempt employees include,
14but are not limited to, employees working in the capacity of
15ushers, directors, ticket takers, cashiers, drivers, and
16reception personnel. Confidential or security information is
17that which pertains to employee files, scheduling, client
18contracts, or technical security and alarm data.
19    (p) An applicant who is 21 years of age or older seeking a
20religious exemption to the photograph requirement of this
21Section shall furnish with the application an approved copy of
22United States Department of the Treasury Internal Revenue
23Service Form 4029. Regardless of age, an applicant seeking a
24religious exemption to this photograph requirement shall
25submit fingerprints in a form and manner prescribed by the
26Department with the applicant's application in lieu of a

 

 

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1photograph.
2(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 103-309, eff. 1-1-24.)
 
3    (225 ILCS 447/35-35)
4    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2029)
5    Sec. 35-35. Requirement of a firearm control card.
6    (a) No person shall perform duties that include the use,
7carrying, or possession of a firearm in the performance of
8those duties without complying with the provisions of this
9Section and having been issued a valid firearm control card by
10the Department.
11    (b) No employer shall employ any person to perform the
12duties for which licensure or employee registration is
13required and allow that person to carry a firearm unless that
14person has complied with all the firearm training requirements
15of this Section and has been issued a firearm control card.
16This Act permits only the following to carry firearms while
17actually engaged in the performance of their duties or while
18commuting directly to or from their places of employment:
19persons licensed as private detectives and their registered
20employees; persons licensed as private security contractors
21and their registered employees; persons licensed as private
22alarm contractors and their registered employees; and
23employees of a registered armed proprietary security force.
24    (c) Possession of a valid firearm control card allows a
25licensee or employee to carry a firearm not otherwise

 

 

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1prohibited by law while the licensee or employee is engaged in
2the performance of the licensee's or employee's duties or
3while the licensee or employee is commuting directly to or
4from the licensee's or employee's place or places of
5employment.
6    (d) The Department shall issue a firearm control card to a
7person who has passed an approved firearm training course, who
8is currently licensed or employed by an agency licensed by
9this Act and has met all the requirements of this Act, and who
10is not prohibited under State or federal law from possessing a
11firearm possesses a valid firearm owner identification card.
12Application for the firearm control card shall be made by the
13employer to the Department on forms provided by the
14Department. The Department shall forward the card to the
15employer who shall be responsible for its issuance to the
16licensee or employee. The firearm control card shall be issued
17by the Department and shall identify the person holding it and
18the name of the course where the licensee or employee received
19firearm instruction and shall specify the type of weapon or
20weapons the person is authorized by the Department to carry
21and for which the person has been trained.
22    (e) Expiration and requirements for renewal of firearm
23control cards shall be determined by rule.
24    (f) The Department may, in addition to any other
25disciplinary action permitted by this Act, refuse to issue,
26suspend, or revoke a firearm control card if the applicant or

 

 

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1holder has been convicted of any felony or crime involving the
2illegal use, carrying, or possession of a deadly weapon or for
3a violation of this Act or rules adopted promulgated under
4this Act. The Department shall refuse to issue or shall revoke
5a firearm control card if the applicant or holder is
6prohibited under State or federal law from possessing a
7firearm fails to possess a valid firearm owners identification
8card without hearing. The Secretary shall summarily suspend a
9firearm control card if the Secretary finds that its continued
10use would constitute an imminent danger to the public. A
11hearing shall be held before the Board within 30 days if the
12Secretary summarily suspends a firearm control card.
13    (g) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the
14contrary, all requirements relating to firearms control cards
15do not apply to a peace officer. If an individual ceases to be
16employed as a peace officer and continues to perform services
17in an armed capacity under this Act that are licensed
18activities, then the individual is required to obtain a
19permanent employee registration card pursuant to Section 35-30
20of this Act and must possess a valid Firearm Owner's
21Identification Card, but is not required to obtain a firearm
22control card if the individual is otherwise in continuing
23compliance with the federal Law Enforcement Officers Safety
24Act of 2004. If an individual elects to carry a firearm
25pursuant to the federal Law Enforcement Officers Safety Act of
262004, then the agency employing the officer shall submit an

 

 

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1application to the Department for issuance of a waiver card
2along with a fee specified by rule.
3    (h) The Department may issue a temporary firearm control
4card pending issuance of a new firearm control card upon an
5agency's acquiring of an established armed account. An agency
6that has acquired armed employees as a result of acquiring an
7established armed account may, on forms supplied by the
8Department, request the issuance of a temporary firearm
9control card for each acquired employee who held a valid
10firearm control card under the employer's employment with the
11newly acquired established armed account immediately preceding
12the acquiring of the account and who continues to meet all of
13the qualifications for issuance of a firearm control card set
14forth in this Act and any rules adopted under this Act. The
15Department shall, by rule, set the fee for issuance of a
16temporary firearm control card.
17    (i) The Department shall not issue a firearm control card
18to a licensed fingerprint vendor or a licensed locksmith or
19employees of a licensed fingerprint vendor agency or a
20licensed locksmith agency.
21(Source: P.A. 103-309, eff. 1-1-24.)
 
22    Section 46. The Illinois Gambling Act is amended by
23changing Section 5.4 as follows:
 
24    (230 ILCS 10/5.4)

 

 

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1    Sec. 5.4. Retired investigators and sworn law enforcement
2personnel.
3    (a) The Board shall establish a program to allow an
4investigator appointed under paragraph (20.6) of subsection
5(c) of Section 4 who is honorably retiring in good standing to
6purchase either one or both of the following: (1) any badge
7previously issued to the investigator by the Board; or (2) if
8the investigator has a currently valid Firearm Owner's
9Identification Card, the service firearm issued or previously
10issued to the investigator by the Board. The badge must be
11permanently and conspicuously marked in such a manner that the
12individual who possesses the badge is not mistaken for an
13actively serving law enforcement officer. The cost of the
14firearm shall be the replacement value of the firearm and not
15the firearm's fair market value.
16    (b) The Board shall:
17        (1) allow sworn law enforcement personnel employed by
18    the Board who retire in good standing to keep their
19    previously issued Board identification cards. The Board
20    shall stamp in red lettering "RETIRED" recognizing their
21    retired status; or
22        (2) issue photographic identification cards to sworn
23    law enforcement personnel employed by the Board who retire
24    in good standing that indicate their separation from
25    service and identify the person as having been employed by
26    the Board as sworn law enforcement personnel.

 

 

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1    If a Board-issued identification card described in this
2subsection is lost or stolen, the Board shall immediately
3reissue a replacement identification card that meets the
4requirements of paragraph (1) or (2) upon written request by
5the retired sworn law enforcement personnel.
6(Source: P.A. 104-347, eff. 8-15-25.)
 
7    Section 50. The Mental Health and Developmental
8Disabilities Code is amended by changing Sections 1-106,
91-116, 6-103.1, 6-103.2, and 6-103.3 as follows:
 
10    (405 ILCS 5/1-106)  (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1-106)
11    Sec. 1-106. "Developmental disability" means a severe,
12chronic disability, other than mental illness, found to be
13closely related to an intellectual disability because this
14condition results in impairment of general intellectual
15functioning or adaptive behavior similar to that of persons
16with ID, and requires services similar to those required for a
17person with an intellectual disability. In addition, a
18developmental disability: (1) is manifested before the
19individual reaches 22 years of age; (2) is likely to continue
20indefinitely; (3) results in substantial functional
21limitations in three or more of the following areas of major
22life activity: self-care, receptive and expressive language,
23learning, mobility, self-direction, capacity for independent
24living, or economic self-sufficiency; and (4) reflects the

 

 

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1individual's need for a combination and sequence of special
2interdisciplinary or generic services, individualized
3supports, or other forms of assistance that are of lifelong or
4extended duration and are individually planned and
5coordinated. This definition does not supersede the
6"developmental disability" definition in Section 1.1 of the
7Firearm Owners Identification Card Act which is required to be
8applied under that Act for the purpose of mandatory reporting.
9(Source: P.A. 102-972, eff. 1-1-23.)
 
10    (405 ILCS 5/1-116)  (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1-116)
11    Sec. 1-116. Intellectual disability. "Intellectual
12disability" means a disorder with onset during the
13developmental period (before the individual reaches age 22),
14that includes both intellectual and adaptive deficits in
15conceptual, social and practical domains. The following 3
16criteria must be met: (1) deficits in intellectual functions
17such as reasoning, problem solving, planning, abstract
18thinking, judgment, academic learning, and learning from
19experience confirmed by both clinical assessment and
20individualized, standardized intelligence testing (generally
21indicated with an IQ score of about 70 or below), (2) deficits
22in adaptive functioning that result in failure to meet
23developmental and sociocultural standards for personal
24independence and social responsibility. Without ongoing
25support, the adaptive deficits limit functioning in one or

 

 

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1more activities of daily life, such as communication, social
2participation, and independent living, across multiple
3environments, such as home, school, work, and community, and
4(3) onset of intellectual and adaptive deficits during the
5developmental period. This definition does not supersede the
6"intellectual disability" definition in Section 1.1 of the
7Firearm Owners Identification Card Act which is required to be
8applied under that Act for the purpose of mandatory reporting.
9(Source: P.A. 102-972, eff. 1-1-23.)
 
10    (405 ILCS 5/6-103.1)
11    Sec. 6-103.1. Adjudication as a person with a mental
12disability. When a person has been adjudicated as a person
13with a mental disability as defined in Section 1.1 of the
14Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, including, but not
15limited to, an adjudication as a person with a disability as
16defined in Section 11a-2 of the Probate Act of 1975, the court
17shall direct the circuit court clerk to notify the Illinois
18State Police, Firearm Owner's Identification (FOID) Office, in
19a form and manner prescribed by the Illinois State Police, and
20shall forward a copy of the court order to the Department no
21later than 7 days after the entry of the order. Upon receipt of
22the order, the Illinois State Police shall provide
23notification to the National Instant Criminal Background Check
24System. In this Section, "has been adjudicated as a mentally
25disabled person" means the person is the subject of a

 

 

SB3171- 139 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1determination by a court, board, commission, or other lawful
2authority that the person, as a result of marked subnormal
3intelligence, or mental illness, mental impairment,
4incompetency, condition, or disease:
5        (1) presents a clear and present danger to himself,
6    herself, or to others;    
7        (2) lacks the mental capacity to manage his or her own
8    affairs or is adjudicated a disabled person as defined in
9    Section 11a-2 of the Probate Act of 1975;
10        (3) is not guilty in a criminal case by reason of
11    insanity, mental disease or defect;
12        (3.5) is guilty but mentally ill, as provided in
13    Section 5-2-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections;    
14        (4) is unfit to stand trial in a criminal case;
15        (5) is not guilty by reason of lack of mental
16    responsibility under Articles 50a and 72b of the Uniform
17    Code of Military Justice, 10 U.S.C. 850a, 876b;
18        (6) is a sexually violent person under subsection (f)
19    of Section 5 of the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment
20    Act;
21        (7) is a sexually dangerous person under the Sexually
22    Dangerous Persons Act;
23        (8) is unfit to stand trial under the Juvenile Court
24    Act of 1987;
25        (9) is not guilty by reason of insanity under the
26    Juvenile Court Act of 1987;

 

 

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1        (10) is a person subject to involuntary admission on
2    an inpatient basis as defined in Section 1-119 of the
3    Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code;
4        (11) is a person subject to involuntary admission on
5    an outpatient basis as defined in Section 1-119.1 of the
6    Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code;
7        (12) is subject to judicial admission as set forth in
8    Section 4-500 of the Mental Health and Developmental
9    Disabilities Code; or
10        (13) is subject to the provisions of the Interstate
11    Agreements on Sexually Dangerous Persons Act.    
12(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)
 
13    (405 ILCS 5/6-103.2)
14    Sec. 6-103.2. Developmental disability; notice. If a
15person 14 years old or older is determined to be a person with
16a developmental disability by a physician, clinical
17psychologist, advanced practice psychiatric nurse, or
18qualified examiner, the physician, clinical psychologist,
19advanced practice psychiatric nurse, or qualified examiner
20shall notify the Department of Human Services within 7 days of
21making the determination that the person has a developmental
22disability. The Department of Human Services shall immediately
23update its records and information relating to mental health
24and developmental disabilities, and if appropriate, shall
25notify the Illinois State Police in a form and manner

 

 

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1prescribed by the Illinois State Police. Information disclosed
2under this Section shall remain privileged and confidential,
3and shall not be redisclosed, except as required under
4paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 24-4.5 of the
5Criminal Code of 2012 subsection (e) of Section 3.1 of the
6Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, nor used for any other
7purpose. The method of providing this information shall
8guarantee that the information is not released beyond that
9which is necessary for the purpose of this Section and shall be
10provided by rule by the Department of Human Services. The
11identity of the person reporting under this Section shall not
12be disclosed to the subject of the report.
13    The physician, clinical psychologist, advanced practice
14psychiatric nurse, or qualified examiner making the
15determination and his or her employer may not be held
16criminally, civilly, or professionally liable for making or
17not making the notification required under this Section,
18except for willful or wanton misconduct.
19    In this Section, "developmentally disabled" has the
20meaning ascribed to it in Section 12 of the Mental Health and
21Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act.    
22    In For purposes of this Section, "developmental
23disability" means a disability which is attributable to any
24other condition which results in impairment similar to that
25caused by an intellectual disability and which requires
26services similar to those required by intellectually disabled

 

 

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1persons. The disability must originate before the age of 18
2years, be expected to continue indefinitely, and constitute a
3substantial disability. This disability results, in the
4professional opinion of a physician, clinical psychologist,
5advanced practice psychiatric nurse, or qualified examiner, in
6significant functional limitations in 3 or more of the
7following areas of major life activity:
8        (i) self-care;
9        (ii) receptive and expressive language;
10        (iii) learning;
11        (iv) mobility; or
12        (v) self-direction.
13    "Determined to be a person with a developmental disability
14by a physician, clinical psychologist, advanced practice
15psychiatric nurse, or qualified examiner" means in the
16professional opinion of the physician, clinical psychologist,
17advanced practice psychiatric nurse, or qualified examiner, a
18person, with whom the physician, psychologist, nurse, or
19examiner has a formal relationship in his or her professional
20or official capacity, is diagnosed, assessed, or evaluated as
21having a developmental disability.
22(Source: P.A. 104-270, eff. 8-15-25.)
 
23    (405 ILCS 5/6-103.3)
24    Sec. 6-103.3. Clear and present danger; notice. If a
25person is determined to pose a clear and present danger to

 

 

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1himself, herself, or to others by a physician, clinical
2psychologist, advanced practice psychiatric nurse, or
3qualified examiner, whether employed by the State, by any
4public or private mental health facility or part thereof, or
5by a law enforcement official or a school administrator, then
6the physician, clinical psychologist, advanced practice
7psychiatric nurse, or qualified examiner shall notify the
8Department of Human Services and a law enforcement official or
9school administrator shall notify the Illinois State Police,
10within 24 hours of making the determination that the person
11poses a clear and present danger. The Department of Human
12Services shall immediately update its records and information
13relating to mental health and developmental disabilities, and
14if appropriate, shall notify the Illinois State Police in a
15form and manner prescribed by the Illinois State Police.
16Information disclosed under this Section shall remain
17privileged and confidential, and shall not be redisclosed,
18except as required under paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of
19Section 24-4.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 subsection (e) of
20Section 3.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, nor
21used for any other purpose. The method of providing this
22information shall guarantee that the information is not
23released beyond that which is necessary for the purpose of
24this Section and shall be provided by rule by the Department of
25Human Services. The identity of the person reporting under
26this Section shall not be disclosed to the subject of the

 

 

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1report. The physician, clinical psychologist, advanced
2practice psychiatric nurse, qualified examiner, law
3enforcement official, or school administrator making the
4determination and his or her employer shall not be held
5criminally, civilly, or professionally liable for making or
6not making the notification required under this Section,
7except for willful or wanton misconduct. This Section does not
8apply to a law enforcement official, if making the
9notification under this Section will interfere with an ongoing
10or pending criminal investigation.
11    In For the purposes of this Section:
12        "Clear and present danger" means a person who:    
13            (1) communicates a serious threat of physical
14        violence against a reasonably identifiable victim or
15        poses a clear and imminent risk of serious physical
16        injury to himself, herself, or another person as
17        determined by a physician, clinical psychologist, or
18        qualified examiner; or
19            (2) demonstrates threatening physical or verbal
20        behavior, such as violent, suicidal, or assaultive
21        threats, actions, or other behavior, as determined by
22        a physician, clinical psychologist, qualified
23        examiner, school administrator, or law enforcement
24        official.    
25        "Physician", "clinical psychologist", and "qualified
26    examiner" have the meanings ascribed to them in the Mental

 

 

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1    Health and Developmental Disabilities Code has the meaning
2    ascribed to it in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners
3    Identification Card Act.
4        "Determined to pose a clear and present danger to
5    himself, herself, or to others by a physician, clinical
6    psychologist, advanced practice psychiatric nurse, or
7    qualified examiner" means in the professional opinion of
8    the physician, clinical psychologist, advanced practice
9    psychiatric nurse, or qualified examiner, a person, with
10    whom the physician, psychologist, nurse, or examiner has a
11    formal relationship in his or her official capacity, poses
12    a clear and present danger.
13        "School administrator" means the person required to
14    report under the School Administrator Reporting of Mental
15    Health Clear and Present Danger Determinations Law.
16(Source: P.A. 104-270, eff. 8-15-25.)
 
17    Section 55. The Lead Poisoning Prevention Act is amended
18by changing Section 2 as follows:
 
19    (410 ILCS 45/2)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1302)
20    Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act:
21    "Child care facility" means any structure used by a child
22care provider licensed by the Department of Children and
23Family Services or public or private school structure
24frequented by children 6 years of age or younger.

 

 

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1    "Childhood Lead Risk Questionnaire" means the
2questionnaire developed by the Department for use by
3physicians and other health care providers to determine risk
4factors for children 6 years of age or younger residing in
5areas designated as low risk for lead exposure.
6    "Delegate agency" means a unit of local government or
7health department approved by the Department to carry out the
8provisions of this Act.
9    "Department" means the Department of Public Health.
10    "Director" means the Director of Public Health.
11    "Dwelling unit" means an individual unit within a
12residential building used as living quarters for one
13household.
14    "Elevated blood lead level" means a blood lead level in
15excess of the limits established under State rules.
16    "Exposed surface" means any interior or exterior surface
17of a regulated facility.
18    "High risk area" means an area in the State determined by
19the Department to be high risk for lead exposure for children 6
20years of age or younger. The Department may consider, but is
21not limited to, the following factors to determine a high risk
22area: age and condition (using Department of Housing and Urban
23Development definitions of "slum" and "blighted") of housing,
24proximity to highway traffic or heavy local traffic or both,
25percentage of housing determined as rental or vacant,
26proximity to industry using lead, established incidence of

 

 

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1elevated blood lead levels in children, percentage of
2population living below 200% of federal poverty guidelines,
3and number of children residing in the area who are 6 years of
4age or younger.
5    "Lead abatement" means any approved work practices that
6will permanently eliminate lead exposure or remove the
7lead-bearing substances in a regulated facility. The
8Department shall establish by rule which work practices are
9approved or prohibited for lead abatement.
10    "Lead abatement contractor" means any person or entity
11licensed by the Department to perform lead abatement and
12mitigation.
13    "Lead abatement supervisor" means any person employed by a
14lead abatement contractor and licensed by the Department to
15perform lead abatement and lead mitigation and to supervise
16lead workers who perform lead abatement and lead mitigation.
17    "Lead abatement worker" means any person employed by a
18lead abatement contractor and licensed by the Department to
19perform lead abatement and mitigation.
20    "Lead activities" means the conduct of any lead services,
21including, lead inspection, lead risk assessment, lead
22mitigation, or lead abatement work or supervision in a
23regulated facility.
24    "Lead-bearing substance" means any item containing or
25coated with lead such that the lead content is more than
26six-hundredths of one percent (0.06%) lead by total weight; or

 

 

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1any dust on surfaces or in furniture or other nonpermanent
2elements of the regulated facility; or any paint or other
3surface coating material containing more than five-tenths of
4one percent (0.5%) lead by total weight (calculated as lead
5metal) in the total non-volatile content of liquid paint; or
6lead-bearing substances containing greater than one milligram
7per square centimeter or any lower standard for lead content
8in residential paint as may be established by federal law or
9rule; or more than 1 milligram per square centimeter in the
10dried film of paint or previously applied substance; or item
11or dust on item containing lead in excess of the amount
12specified in the rules authorized by this Act or a lower
13standard for lead content as may be established by federal law
14or rule. "Lead-bearing substance" does not include firearm
15ammunition or components as defined by Section 2-7.1 of the
16Criminal Code of 2012 the Firearm Owners Identification Card
17Act.
18    "Lead hazard" means a lead-bearing substance that poses an
19immediate health hazard to humans.
20    "Lead hazard screen" means a lead risk assessment that
21involves limited dust and paint sampling for lead-bearing
22substances and lead hazards. This service is used as a
23screening tool designed to determine if further lead
24investigative services are required for the regulated
25facility.
26    "Lead inspection" means a surface-by-surface investigation

 

 

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1to determine the presence of lead-based paint.
2    "Lead inspector" means an individual who has been trained
3by a Department-approved training program and is licensed by
4the Department to conduct lead inspections; to sample for the
5presence of lead in paint, dust, soil, and water; and to
6conduct compliance investigations.
7    "Lead mitigation" means the remediation, in a manner
8described in Section 9, of a lead hazard so that the
9lead-bearing substance does not pose an immediate health
10hazard to humans.
11    "Lead poisoning" means having an elevated blood lead
12level.
13    "Lead risk assessment" means an on-site investigation to
14determine the existence, nature, severity, and location of
15lead hazards. "Lead risk assessment" includes any lead
16sampling and visual assessment associated with conducting a
17lead risk assessment and lead hazard screen and all lead
18sampling associated with compliance investigations.
19    "Lead risk assessor" means an individual who has been
20trained by a Department-approved training program and is
21licensed by the Department to conduct lead risk assessments,
22lead inspections, and lead hazard screens; to sample for the
23presence of lead in paint, dust, soil, water, and sources for
24lead-bearing substances; and to conduct compliance
25investigations.
26    "Lead training program provider" means any person

 

 

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1providing Department-approved lead training in Illinois to
2individuals seeking licensure in accordance with the Act.
3    "Low risk area" means an area in the State determined by
4the Department to be low risk for lead exposure for children 6
5years of age or younger. The Department may consider the
6factors named in "high risk area" to determine low risk areas.
7    "Owner" means any person, who alone, jointly, or severally
8with others:
9        (a) Has legal title to any regulated facility, with or
10    without actual possession of the regulated facility, or
11        (b) Has charge, care, or control of the regulated
12    facility as owner or agent of the owner, or as executor,
13    administrator, trustee, or guardian of the estate of the
14    owner.
15    "Person" means any individual, partnership, firm, company,
16limited liability company, corporation, association, joint
17stock company, trust, estate, political subdivision, State
18agency, or any other legal entity, or their legal
19representative, agent, or assign.
20    "Regulated facility" means a residential building or child
21care facility.
22    "Residential building" means any room, group of rooms, or
23other interior areas of a structure designed or used for human
24habitation; common areas accessible by inhabitants; and the
25surrounding property or structures.
26(Source: P.A. 100-723, eff. 1-1-19.)
 

 

 

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1    (430 ILCS 65/Act rep.)
2    Section 60. The Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is
3repealed.
 
4    Section 65. The Firearm Concealed Carry Act is amended by
5changing Sections 25, 30, 40, 66, 70, 80, and 105 as follows:
 
6    (430 ILCS 66/25)
7    Sec. 25. Qualifications for a license.
8    The Illinois State Police shall issue a license to an
9applicant completing an application in accordance with Section
1030 of this Act if the person:
11        (1) is at least 21 years of age;
12        (2) has a currently valid Firearm Owner's
13    Identification Card and at the time of application meets
14    the requirements for the issuance of a Firearm Owner's
15    Identification Card and is not prohibited under State the
16    Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or federal law from
17    possessing or receiving a firearm;
18        (3) has not been convicted or found guilty in this
19    State or in any other state of:
20            (A) a misdemeanor involving the use or threat of
21        physical force or violence to any person within the 5
22        years preceding the date of the license application;
23        or

 

 

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1            (B) 2 or more violations related to driving while
2        under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs,
3        intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination
4        thereof, within the 5 years preceding the date of the
5        license application;
6        (4) is not the subject of a pending arrest warrant,
7    prosecution, or proceeding for an offense or action that
8    could lead to disqualification to own or possess a
9    firearm;
10        (5) has not been in residential or court-ordered
11    treatment for alcoholism, alcohol detoxification, or drug
12    treatment within the 5 years immediately preceding the
13    date of the license application; and
14        (6) has completed firearms training and any education
15    component required under Section 75 of this Act.
16(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)
 
17    (430 ILCS 66/30)
18    Sec. 30. Contents of license application.
19    (a) The license application shall be in writing, under
20penalty of perjury, on a standard form adopted by the Illinois
21State Police and shall be accompanied by the documentation
22required in this Section and the applicable fee. Each
23application form shall include the following statement printed
24in bold type: "Warning: Entering false information on this
25form is punishable as perjury under Section 32-2 of the

 

 

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1Criminal Code of 2012."
2    (b) The application shall contain the following:
3        (1) the applicant's name, current address, date and
4    year of birth, place of birth, height, weight, hair color,
5    eye color, maiden name or any other name the applicant has
6    used or identified with, and any address where the
7    applicant resided for more than 30 days within the 10
8    years preceding the date of the license application;
9        (2) the applicant's valid driver's license number or
10    valid state identification card number;
11        (3) a waiver of the applicant's privacy and
12    confidentiality rights and privileges under all federal
13    and state laws, including those limiting access to
14    juvenile court, criminal justice, psychological, or
15    psychiatric records or records relating to any
16    institutionalization of the applicant, and an affirmative
17    request that a person having custody of any of these
18    records provide it or information concerning it to the
19    Illinois State Police. The waiver only applies to records
20    sought in connection with determining whether the
21    applicant qualifies for a license to carry a concealed
22    firearm under this Act, or whether the applicant remains
23    in compliance with the Firearm Owners Identification Card
24    Act;
25        (4) an affirmation that the applicant is not
26    prohibited under State or federal law from possessing or

 

 

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1    receiving a firearm possesses a currently valid Firearm
2    Owner's Identification Card and card number if possessed
3    or notice the applicant is applying for a Firearm Owner's
4    Identification Card in conjunction with the license
5    application;
6        (5) an affirmation that the applicant has not been
7    convicted or found guilty of:
8            (A) a felony;
9            (B) a misdemeanor involving the use or threat of
10        physical force or violence to any person within the 5
11        years preceding the date of the application; or
12            (C) 2 or more violations related to driving while
13        under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs,
14        intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination
15        thereof, within the 5 years preceding the date of the
16        license application;
17        (6) whether the applicant has failed a drug test for a
18    drug for which the applicant did not have a prescription,
19    within the previous year, and if so, the provider of the
20    test, the specific substance involved, and the date of the
21    test;
22        (7) written consent for the Illinois State Police to
23    review and use the applicant's Illinois digital driver's
24    license or Illinois identification card photograph and
25    signature;
26        (8) unless submitted under subsection (a-25) of

 

 

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1    Section 4 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, a
2    full set of fingerprints submitted to the Illinois State
3    Police in electronic format, provided the Illinois State
4    Police may accept an application submitted without a set
5    of fingerprints, in which case the Illinois State Police
6    shall be granted 30 days in addition to the 90 days
7    provided under subsection (e) of Section 10 of this Act to
8    issue or deny a license;
9        (9) a head and shoulder color photograph in a size
10    specified by the Illinois State Police taken within the 30
11    days preceding the date of the license application; and
12        (10) a photocopy of any certificates or other evidence
13    of compliance with the training requirements under this
14    Act.
15(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21;
16102-813, eff. 5-13-22.)
 
17    (430 ILCS 66/40)
18    Sec. 40. Non-resident license applications.
19    (a) For the purposes of this Section, "non-resident" means
20a person who has not resided within this State for more than 30
21days and resides in another state or territory.
22    (b) The Illinois State Police shall by rule allow for
23non-resident license applications from any state or territory
24of the United States with laws related to firearm ownership,
25possession, and carrying, that are substantially similar to

 

 

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1the requirements to obtain a license under this Act.
2    (c) A resident of a state or territory approved by the
3Illinois State Police under subsection (b) of this Section may
4apply for a non-resident license. The applicant shall apply to
5the Illinois State Police and must meet all of the
6qualifications established in Section 25 of this Act, except
7for the Illinois residency requirement in item (xiv) of
8paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 4 of the Firearm
9Owners Identification Card Act. The applicant shall submit:
10        (1) the application and documentation required under
11    Section 30 of this Act and the applicable fee;
12        (2) a notarized document stating that the applicant:
13            (A) is eligible under federal law and the laws of
14        his or her state or territory of residence to own or
15        possess a firearm;
16            (B) if applicable, has a license or permit to
17        carry a firearm or concealed firearm issued by his or
18        her state or territory of residence and attach a copy
19        of the license or permit to the application;
20            (C) understands Illinois laws pertaining to the
21        possession and transport of firearms; and
22            (D) acknowledges that the applicant is subject to
23        the jurisdiction of the Illinois State Police and
24        Illinois courts for any violation of this Act;
25        (3) a photocopy of any certificates or other evidence
26    of compliance with the training requirements under Section

 

 

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1    75 of this Act; and
2        (4) a head and shoulder color photograph in a size
3    specified by the Illinois State Police taken within the 30
4    days preceding the date of the application.
5    (d) In lieu of an Illinois driver's license or Illinois
6identification card, a non-resident applicant shall provide
7similar documentation from his or her state or territory of
8residence. The applicant shall submit In lieu of a valid
9Firearm Owner's Identification Card, the applicant shall
10submit documentation and information required by the Illinois
11State Police to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card,
12including an affidavit that the non-resident meets the mental
13health standards to obtain a firearm under Illinois law, and
14the Illinois State Police shall ensure that the applicant
15would meet the eligibility criteria under State law to possess
16a firearm to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification card if
17he or she was a resident of this State.
18    (e) Nothing in this Act shall prohibit a non-resident from
19transporting a concealed firearm within his or her vehicle in
20Illinois, if the concealed firearm remains within his or her
21vehicle and the non-resident:
22        (1) is not prohibited from owning or possessing a
23    firearm under federal law;
24        (2) is eligible to carry a firearm in public under the
25    laws of his or her state or territory of residence, as
26    evidenced by the possession of a concealed carry license

 

 

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1    or permit issued by his or her state of residence, if
2    applicable; and
3        (3) is not in possession of a license under this Act.
4    If the non-resident leaves his or her vehicle unattended,
5he or she shall store the firearm within a locked vehicle or
6locked container within the vehicle in accordance with
7subsection (b) of Section 65 of this Act.
8(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)
 
9    (430 ILCS 66/66)
10    Sec. 66. Illinois State Police to monitor databases for
11firearms prohibitors. The Illinois State Police shall
12continuously monitor relevant State and federal databases for
13firearms prohibitors and correlate those records with
14concealed carry license holders to ensure compliance with this
15Act and any other State and federal laws. As used in this
16Section, "firearms prohibitor" means any factor listed in
17Section 8 or Section 8.2 of the Firearm Owners Identification
18Card Act or Section 24-3 or 24-3.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012
19that prohibits a person from transferring or possessing a
20firearm, firearm ammunition, Firearm Owner's Identification
21Card, or concealed carry license.
22(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22.)
 
23    (430 ILCS 66/70)
24    Sec. 70. Violations.

 

 

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1    (a) A license issued or renewed under this Act shall be
2revoked if, at any time, the licensee is found to be ineligible
3for a license under this Act or the licensee is prohibited from
4possessing a firearm under State or federal law no longer
5meets the eligibility requirements of the Firearm Owners
6Identification Card Act.
7    (b) A license shall be suspended if an order of
8protection, including an emergency order of protection,
9plenary order of protection, or interim order of protection
10under Article 112A of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 or
11under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, or if a
12firearms restraining order, including an emergency firearms
13restraining order, under the Firearms Restraining Order Act,
14is issued against a licensee for the duration of the order, or
15if the Illinois State Police is made aware of a similar order
16issued against the licensee in any other jurisdiction. If an
17order of protection is issued against a licensee, the licensee
18shall surrender the license, as applicable, to the court at
19the time the order is entered or to the law enforcement agency
20or entity serving process at the time the licensee is served
21the order. The court, law enforcement agency, or entity
22responsible for serving the order of protection shall notify
23the Illinois State Police within 7 days and transmit the
24license to the Illinois State Police.
25    (c) A license is invalid upon expiration of the license,
26unless the licensee has submitted an application to renew the

 

 

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1license, and the applicant is otherwise eligible to possess a
2license under this Act.
3    (d) A licensee shall not carry a concealed firearm while
4under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs,
5intoxicating compound or combination of compounds, or any
6combination thereof, under the standards set forth in
7subsection (a) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.
8    A licensee in violation of this subsection (d) shall be
9guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for a first or second violation
10and a Class 4 felony for a third violation. The Illinois State
11Police may suspend a license for up to 6 months for a second
12violation and shall permanently revoke a license for a third
13violation.
14    (e) Except as otherwise provided, a licensee in violation
15of this Act shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor. A second
16or subsequent violation is a Class A misdemeanor. The Illinois
17State Police may suspend a license for up to 6 months for a
18second violation and shall permanently revoke a license for 3
19or more violations of Section 65 of this Act. Any person
20convicted of a violation under this Section shall pay a $150
21fee to be deposited into the Mental Health Reporting Fund,
22plus any applicable court costs or fees.
23    (f) A licensee convicted or found guilty of a violation of
24this Act who has a valid license and is otherwise eligible to
25carry a concealed firearm shall only be subject to the
26penalties under this Section and shall not be subject to the

 

 

SB3171- 161 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1penalties under Section 21-6, paragraph (4), (8), or (10) of
2subsection (a) of Section 24-1, or subparagraph (A-5) or (B-5)
3of paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1.6 of the
4Criminal Code of 2012. Except as otherwise provided in this
5subsection, nothing in this subsection prohibits the licensee
6from being subjected to penalties for violations other than
7those specified in this Act.
8    (g) A licensee whose license is revoked, suspended, or
9denied shall, within 48 hours of receiving notice of the
10revocation, suspension, or denial, surrender his or her
11concealed carry license to the local law enforcement agency
12where the person resides. The local law enforcement agency
13shall provide the licensee a receipt and transmit the
14concealed carry license to the Illinois State Police. If the
15licensee whose concealed carry license has been revoked,
16suspended, or denied fails to comply with the requirements of
17this subsection, the law enforcement agency where the person
18resides may petition the circuit court to issue a warrant to
19search for and seize the concealed carry license in the
20possession and under the custody or control of the licensee
21whose concealed carry license has been revoked, suspended, or
22denied. The observation of a concealed carry license in the
23possession of a person whose license has been revoked,
24suspended, or denied constitutes a sufficient basis for the
25arrest of that person for violation of this subsection. A
26violation of this subsection is a Class A misdemeanor.

 

 

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1    (h) (Blank). Except as otherwise provided in subsection
2(h-5), a license issued or renewed under this Act shall be
3revoked if, at any time, the licensee is found ineligible for a
4Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or the licensee no longer
5possesses a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card. If the
6Firearm Owner's Identification Card is expired or suspended
7rather than denied or revoked, the license may be suspended
8for a period of up to one year to allow the licensee to
9reinstate his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card. The
10Illinois State Police shall adopt rules to enforce this
11subsection. A licensee whose license is revoked under this
12subsection (h) shall surrender his or her concealed carry
13license as provided for in subsection (g) of this Section.    
14    This subsection shall not apply to a person who has filed
15an application with the Illinois State Police for renewal of a
16Firearm Owner's Identification Card and who is not otherwise
17ineligible to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card.
18    (h-5) (Blank). If the Firearm Owner's Identification Card
19of a licensee under this Act expires during the term of the
20license issued under this Act, the license and the Firearm
21Owner's Identification Card remain valid, and the Illinois
22State Police may automatically renew the licensee's Firearm
23Owner's Identification Card as provided in subsection (c) of
24Section 5 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.
25    (i) A certified firearms instructor who knowingly provides
26or offers to provide a false certification that an applicant

 

 

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1has completed firearms training as required under this Act is
2guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. A person guilty of a violation
3of this subsection (i) is not eligible for court supervision.
4The Illinois State Police shall permanently revoke the
5firearms instructor certification of a person convicted under
6this subsection (i).
7(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21;
8102-813, eff. 5-13-22.)
 
9    (430 ILCS 66/80)
10    Sec. 80. Certified firearms instructors.
11    (a) Within 60 days of the effective date of this Act, the
12Illinois State Police shall begin approval of certified
13firearms instructors and enter certified firearms instructors
14into an online registry on the Illinois State Police's
15website.
16    (b) A person who is not a certified firearms instructor
17shall not teach applicant training courses or advertise or
18otherwise represent courses they teach as qualifying their
19students to meet the requirements to receive a license under
20this Act. Each violation of this subsection is a business
21offense with a fine of at least $1,000 per violation.
22    (c) A person seeking to become a certified firearms
23instructor shall:
24        (1) be at least 21 years of age;
25        (2) be a legal resident of the United States; and

 

 

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1        (3) meet the requirements of Section 25 of this Act,
2    except for the Illinois residency requirement in item
3    (xiv) of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 4 of
4    the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act; and any
5    additional uniformly applied requirements established by
6    the Illinois State Police.
7    (d) A person seeking to become a certified firearms
8instructor, in addition to the requirements of subsection (c)
9of this Section, shall:
10        (1) possess a high school diploma or State of Illinois
11    High School Diploma; and
12        (2) have at least one of the following valid firearms
13    instructor certifications:
14            (A) certification from a law enforcement agency;
15            (B) certification from a firearm instructor course
16        offered by a State or federal governmental agency;
17            (C) certification from a firearm instructor
18        qualification course offered by the Illinois Law
19        Enforcement Training Standards Board; or
20            (D) certification from an entity approved by the
21        Illinois State Police that offers firearm instructor
22        education and training in the use and safety of
23        firearms.
24    (e) A person may have his or her firearms instructor
25certification denied or revoked if he or she does not meet the
26requirements to obtain a license under this Act, provides

 

 

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1false or misleading information to the Illinois State Police,
2or has had a prior instructor certification revoked or denied
3by the Illinois State Police.
4(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-1100, eff. 1-1-23.)
 
5    (430 ILCS 66/105)
6    Sec. 105. Duty of school administrator. It is the duty of
7the principal of a public elementary or secondary school, or
8his or her designee, and the chief administrative officer of a
9private elementary or secondary school or a public or private
10community college, college, or university, or his or her
11designee, to report to the Illinois State Police when a
12student is determined to pose a clear and present danger to
13himself, herself, or to others, within 24 hours of the
14determination as provided in Section 6-103.3 of the Mental
15Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. "Clear and present
16danger" has the meaning as provided in paragraph (2) of the
17definition of "clear and present danger" in Section 6-103.3 of
18the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code 1.1 of
19the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.
20(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)
 
21    Section 66. The Firearms Restraining Order Act is amended
22by changing Sections 35 and 40 as follows:
 
23    (430 ILCS 67/35)

 

 

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1    Sec. 35. Ex parte orders and emergency hearings.
2    (a) A petitioner may request an emergency firearms
3restraining order by filing an affidavit or verified pleading
4alleging that the respondent poses an immediate and present
5danger of causing personal injury to himself, herself, or
6another by having in his or her custody or control,
7purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm, ammunition, or
8firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable
9firearm. The petition shall also describe the type and
10location of any firearm or firearms, ammunition, or firearm
11parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm
12presently believed by the petitioner to be possessed or
13controlled by the respondent.
14    (b) If the respondent is alleged to pose an immediate and
15present danger of causing personal injury to an intimate
16partner, or an intimate partner is alleged to have been the
17target of a threat or act of violence by the respondent, the
18petitioner shall make a good faith effort to provide notice to
19any and all intimate partners of the respondent. The notice
20must include that the petitioner intends to petition the court
21for an emergency firearms restraining order, and, if the
22petitioner is a law enforcement officer, referral to relevant
23domestic violence or stalking advocacy or counseling
24resources, if appropriate. The petitioner shall attest to
25having provided the notice in the filed affidavit or verified
26pleading. If, after making a good faith effort, the petitioner

 

 

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1is unable to provide notice to any or all intimate partners,
2the affidavit or verified pleading should describe what
3efforts were made.
4    (c) Every person who files a petition for an emergency
5firearms restraining order, knowing the information provided
6to the court at any hearing or in the affidavit or verified
7pleading to be false, is guilty of perjury under Section 32-2
8of the Criminal Code of 2012.
9    (d) An emergency firearms restraining order shall be
10issued on an ex parte basis, that is, without notice to the
11respondent.
12    (e) An emergency hearing held on an ex parte basis shall be
13held the same day that the petition is filed or the next day
14that the court is in session.
15    (f) If a circuit or associate judge finds probable cause
16to believe that the respondent poses an immediate and present
17danger of causing personal injury to himself, herself, or
18another by having in his or her custody or control,
19purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm, ammunition, or
20firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable
21firearm, the circuit or associate judge shall issue an
22emergency order.
23    (f-5) If the court issues an emergency firearms
24restraining order, it shall, upon a finding of probable cause
25that the respondent possesses firearms, ammunition, or firearm
26parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm,

 

 

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1issue a search warrant directing a law enforcement agency to
2seize the respondent's firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts
3that could be assembled to make an operable firearm. The court
4may, as part of that warrant, direct the law enforcement
5agency to search the respondent's residence and other places
6where the court finds there is probable cause to believe he or
7she is likely to possess the firearms, ammunition, or firearm
8parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm. A
9return of the search warrant shall be filed by the law
10enforcement agency within 4 days thereafter, setting forth the
11time, date, and location that the search warrant was executed
12and what items, if any, were seized.
13    (g) An emergency firearms restraining order shall require:
14        (1) the respondent to refrain from having in his or
15    her custody or control, purchasing, possessing, or
16    receiving additional firearms, ammunition, or firearm
17    parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm,
18    or removing firearm parts that could be assembled to make
19    an operable firearm for the duration of the order under
20    Section 8.2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act;
21    and
22        (2) the respondent to comply with Section 9.5 of the
23    Firearm Owners Identification Card Act and subsection (g)
24    of Section 70 of the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.
25    (h) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (h-5) of
26this Section, upon expiration of the period of safekeeping, if

 

 

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1the firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be
2assembled to make an operable firearm or Firearm Owner's
3Identification Card and concealed carry license cannot be
4returned to the respondent because the respondent cannot be
5located, fails to respond to requests to retrieve the
6firearms, or is not lawfully eligible to possess a firearm,
7ammunition, or firearm parts that could be assembled to make
8an operable firearm, upon petition from the local law
9enforcement agency, the court may order the local law
10enforcement agency to destroy the firearms, ammunition, and
11firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable
12firearm, use the firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that
13could be assembled to make an operable firearm for training
14purposes, or use the firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts
15that could be assembled to make an operable firearm for any
16other application as deemed appropriate by the local law
17enforcement agency.
18    (h-5) On or before January 1, 2022, a respondent whose
19firearms have been turned over to a local law enforcement
20agency Firearm Owner's Identification Card has been revoked or
21suspended may petition the court, if the petitioner is present
22in court or has notice of the respondent's petition, to
23transfer the respondent's firearm, ammunition, and firearm
24parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm to a
25person who is lawfully able to possess the firearm,
26ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make

 

 

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1an operable firearm if the person does not reside at the same
2address as the respondent. Notice of the petition shall be
3served upon the person protected by the emergency firearms
4restraining order. While the order is in effect, the
5transferee who receives the respondent's firearms, ammunition,
6and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable
7firearm must swear or affirm by affidavit that he or she shall
8not transfer the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that
9could be assembled to make an operable firearm to the
10respondent or to anyone residing in the same residence as the
11respondent.
12    (h-6) If a person other than the respondent claims title
13to any firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be
14assembled to make an operable firearm surrendered under this
15Section, he or she may petition the court, if the petitioner is
16present in court or has notice of the petition, to have the
17firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled
18to make an operable firearm returned to him or her. If the
19court determines that person to be the lawful owner of the
20firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled
21to make an operable firearm, the firearm, ammunition, and
22firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable
23firearm shall be returned to him or her, provided that:
24        (1) the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that
25    could be assembled to make an operable firearm are removed
26    from the respondent's custody, control, or possession and

 

 

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1    the lawful owner agrees to store the firearm, ammunition,
2    and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an
3    operable firearm in a manner such that the respondent does
4    not have access to or control of the firearm, ammunition,
5    and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an
6    operable firearm; and
7        (2) the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that
8    could be assembled to make an operable firearm are not
9    otherwise unlawfully possessed by the owner.
10    The person petitioning for the return of his or her
11firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled
12to make an operable firearm must swear or affirm by affidavit
13that he or she: (i) is the lawful owner of the firearm,
14ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make
15an operable firearm; (ii) shall not transfer the firearm,
16ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make
17an operable firearm to the respondent; and (iii) will store
18the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be
19assembled to make an operable firearm in a manner that the
20respondent does not have access to or control of the firearm,
21ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make
22an operable firearm.
23    (i) In accordance with subsection (e) of this Section, the
24court shall schedule a full hearing as soon as possible, but no
25longer than 14 days from the issuance of an ex parte firearms
26restraining order, to determine if a 6-month firearms

 

 

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1restraining order shall be issued. The court may extend an ex
2parte order as needed, but not to exceed 14 days, to effectuate
3service of the order or if necessary to continue protection.
4The court may extend the order for a greater length of time by
5mutual agreement of the parties.
6(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 102-237, eff. 1-1-22;
7102-345, eff. 6-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff.
85-13-22.)
 
9    (430 ILCS 67/40)
10    Sec. 40. Plenary orders.
11    (a) A petitioner may request a firearms restraining order
12for up to one year by filing an affidavit or verified pleading
13alleging that the respondent poses a significant danger of
14causing personal injury to himself, herself, or another in the
15near future by having in his or her custody or control,
16purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm, ammunition,
17and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable
18firearm. The petition shall also describe the number, types,
19and locations of any firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts
20that could be assembled to make an operable firearm presently
21believed by the petitioner to be possessed or controlled by
22the respondent. The firearms restraining order may be renewed
23for an additional period of up to one year in accordance with
24Section 45 of this Act.
25    (b) If the respondent is alleged to pose a significant

 

 

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1danger of causing personal injury to an intimate partner, or
2an intimate partner is alleged to have been the target of a
3threat or act of violence by the respondent, the petitioner
4shall make a good faith effort to provide notice to any and all
5intimate partners of the respondent. The notice must include
6the duration of time that the petitioner intends to petition
7the court for a firearms restraining order, and, if the
8petitioner is a law enforcement officer, referral to relevant
9domestic violence or stalking advocacy or counseling
10resources, if appropriate. The petitioner shall attest to
11having provided the notice in the filed affidavit or verified
12pleading. If, after making a good faith effort, the petitioner
13is unable to provide notice to any or all intimate partners,
14the affidavit or verified pleading should describe what
15efforts were made.
16    (c) Every person who files a petition for a plenary
17firearms restraining order, knowing the information provided
18to the court at any hearing or in the affidavit or verified
19pleading to be false, is guilty of perjury under Section 32-2
20of the Criminal Code of 2012.
21    (d) Upon receipt of a petition for a plenary firearms
22restraining order, the court shall order a hearing within 30
23days.
24    (e) In determining whether to issue a firearms restraining
25order under this Section, the court shall consider evidence
26including, but not limited to, the following:

 

 

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1        (1) The unlawful and reckless use, display, or
2    brandishing of a firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts
3    that could be assembled to make an operable firearm by the
4    respondent.
5        (2) The history of use, attempted use, or threatened
6    use of physical force by the respondent against another
7    person.
8        (3) Any prior arrest of the respondent for a felony
9    offense.
10        (4) Evidence of the abuse of controlled substances or
11    alcohol by the respondent.
12        (5) A recent threat of violence or act of violence by
13    the respondent directed toward himself, herself, or
14    another.
15        (6) A violation of an emergency order of protection
16    issued under Section 217 of the Illinois Domestic Violence
17    Act of 1986 or Section 112A-17 of the Code of Criminal
18    Procedure of 1963 or of an order of protection issued
19    under Section 214 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of
20    1986 or Section 112A-14 of the Code of Criminal Procedure
21    of 1963.
22        (7) A pattern of violent acts or violent threats,
23    including, but not limited to, threats of violence or acts
24    of violence by the respondent directed toward himself,
25    herself, or another.
26    (f) At the hearing, the petitioner shall have the burden

 

 

SB3171- 175 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1of proving, by clear and convincing evidence, that the
2respondent poses a significant danger of personal injury to
3himself, herself, or another by having in his or her custody or
4control, purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm,
5ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make
6an operable firearm.
7    (g) If the court finds that there is clear and convincing
8evidence to issue a plenary firearms restraining order, the
9court shall issue a firearms restraining order that shall be
10in effect for up to one year, but not less than 6 months,
11subject to renewal under Section 45 of this Act or termination
12under that Section.
13    (g-5) If the court issues a plenary firearms restraining
14order, it shall, upon a finding of probable cause that the
15respondent possesses firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts
16that could be assembled to make an operable firearm, issue a
17search warrant directing a law enforcement agency to seize the
18respondent's firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that
19could be assembled to make an operable firearm. The court may,
20as part of that warrant, direct the law enforcement agency to
21search the respondent's residence and other places where the
22court finds there is probable cause to believe he or she is
23likely to possess the firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts
24that could be assembled to make an operable firearm. A return
25of the search warrant shall be filed by the law enforcement
26agency within 4 days thereafter, setting forth the time, date,

 

 

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1and location that the search warrant was executed and what
2items, if any, were seized.
3    (h) A plenary firearms restraining order shall require:
4        (1) the respondent to refrain from having in his or
5    her custody or control, purchasing, possessing, or
6    receiving additional firearms, ammunition, and firearm
7    parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm
8    for the duration of the order under Section 8.2 of the
9    Firearm Owners Identification Card Act; and
10        (2) the respondent to comply with Section 9.5 of the
11    Firearm Owners Identification Card Act and subsection (g)
12    of Section 70 of the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.
13    (i) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (i-5) of
14this Section, upon expiration of the period of safekeeping, if
15the firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be
16assembled to make an operable firearm or Firearm Owner's
17Identification Card cannot be returned to the respondent
18because the respondent cannot be located, fails to respond to
19requests to retrieve the firearms, ammunition, and firearm
20parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm, or
21is not lawfully eligible to possess a firearm, ammunition, and
22firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable
23firearm, upon petition from the local law enforcement agency,
24the court may order the local law enforcement agency to
25destroy the firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could
26be assembled to make an operable firearm, use the firearms,

 

 

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1ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make
2an operable firearm for training purposes, or use the
3firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be
4assembled to make an operable firearm for any other
5application as deemed appropriate by the local law enforcement
6agency.
7    (i-5) A respondent whose firearms have been turned over to
8a local law enforcement agency Firearm Owner's Identification
9Card has been revoked or suspended may petition the court, if
10the petitioner is present in court or has notice of the
11respondent's petition, to transfer the respondent's firearm,
12ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make
13an operable firearm to a person who is lawfully able to possess
14the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be
15assembled to make an operable firearm if the person does not
16reside at the same address as the respondent. Notice of the
17petition shall be served upon the person protected by the
18emergency firearms restraining order. While the order is in
19effect, the transferee who receives the respondent's firearms,
20ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make
21an operable firearm must swear or affirm by affidavit that he
22or she shall not transfer the firearm, ammunition, and firearm
23parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm to
24the respondent or to anyone residing in the same residence as
25the respondent.
26    (i-6) If a person other than the respondent claims title

 

 

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1to any firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be
2assembled to make an operable firearm surrendered under this
3Section, he or she may petition the court, if the petitioner is
4present in court or has notice of the petition, to have the
5firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled
6to make an operable firearm returned to him or her. If the
7court determines that person to be the lawful owner of the
8firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled
9to make an operable firearm, the firearm, ammunition, and
10firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable
11firearm shall be returned to him or her, provided that:
12        (1) the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that
13    could be assembled to make an operable firearm are removed
14    from the respondent's custody, control, or possession and
15    the lawful owner agrees to store the firearm, ammunition,
16    and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an
17    operable firearm in a manner such that the respondent does
18    not have access to or control of the firearm, ammunition,
19    and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an
20    operable firearm; and
21        (2) the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that
22    could be assembled to make an operable firearm are not
23    otherwise unlawfully possessed by the owner.
24    The person petitioning for the return of his or her
25firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled
26to make an operable firearm must swear or affirm by affidavit

 

 

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1that he or she: (i) is the lawful owner of the firearm,
2ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make
3an operable firearm; (ii) shall not transfer the firearm,
4ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make
5an operable firearm to the respondent; and (iii) will store
6the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be
7assembled to make an operable firearm in a manner that the
8respondent does not have access to or control of the firearm,
9ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make
10an operable firearm.
11    (j) If the court does not issue a firearms restraining
12order at the hearing, the court shall dissolve any emergency
13firearms restraining order then in effect.
14    (k) When the court issues a firearms restraining order
15under this Section, the court shall inform the respondent that
16he or she is entitled to one hearing during the period of the
17order to request a termination of the order, under Section 45
18of this Act, and shall provide the respondent with a form to
19request a hearing.
20(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 102-237, eff. 1-1-22;
21102-345, eff. 6-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff.
225-13-22; 102-1116, eff. 1-10-23.)
 
23    Section 67. The Firearm Dealer License Certification Act
24is amended by changing Sections 5-20, 5-25, 5-40, and 5-85 as
25follows:
 

 

 

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1    (430 ILCS 68/5-20)
2    Sec. 5-20. Additional licensee requirements.
3    (a) A certified licensee shall make a photo copy of a
4buyer's or transferee's valid photo identification card
5whenever a firearm sale transaction takes place. The photo
6copy shall be attached to the documentation detailing the
7record of sale.
8    (b) A certified licensee shall post in a conspicuous
9position on the premises where the licensee conducts business
10a sign that contains the following warning in block letters
11not less than one inch in height:
12        "With few exceptions enumerated in the Criminal Code
13    of 2012 Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, it is
14    unlawful for you to:
15            (A) store or leave an unsecured firearm in a place
16        where a child can obtain access to it; or    
17            (B) sell or transfer your firearm to someone else
18        without receiving approval for the transfer from the
19        Illinois State Police, or
20            (B) (C) fail to report the loss or theft of your
21        firearm to local law enforcement within 48 hours.".
22This sign shall be created by the Illinois State Police and
23made available for printing or downloading from the Illinois
24State Police's website.
25    (c) No retail location established after the effective

 

 

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1date of this Act shall be located within 500 feet of any
2school, pre-school, or day care facility in existence at its
3location before the retail location is established as measured
4from the nearest corner of the building holding the retail
5location to the corner of the school, pre-school, or day care
6facility building nearest the retail location at the time the
7retail location seeks licensure.
8    (d) A certified dealer who sells or transfers a firearm
9shall notify the purchaser or the recipient, orally and in
10writing, in both English and Spanish, at the time of the sale
11or transfer, that the owner of a firearm is required to report
12a lost or stolen firearm to local law enforcement within 48
13hours after the owner first discovers the loss or theft. The
14Illinois State Police shall create a written notice, in both
15English and Spanish, that certified dealers shall provide
16firearm purchasers or transferees in accordance with this
17provision and make such notice available for printing or
18downloading from the Illinois State Police website.
19(Source: P.A. 104-31, eff. 1-1-26.)
 
20    (430 ILCS 68/5-25)
21    Sec. 5-25. Exemptions. The provisions of this Act related
22to the certification of a license do not apply to a person or
23entity that engages in the following activities:
24        (1) temporary transfers of firearms solely for use at
25    the location or on the premises where the transfer takes

 

 

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1    place, such as transfers at a shooting range for use at
2    that location;
3        (2) temporary transfers of firearms solely for use
4    while in the presence of the transferor or transfers for
5    the purposes of firearm safety training by a firearms
6    safety training instructor;
7        (3) transfers of firearms among immediate family or
8    household members, as "immediate family or household
9    member" is defined in Section 3-2.7-10 of the Unified Code
10    of Corrections, provided that both the transferor and
11    transferee are not prohibited from possessing a firearm
12    under federal or State law have a currently valid Firearm
13    Owner's Identification Card; however, this paragraph (3)
14    does not limit the familial gift exemption under paragraph
15    (2) of subsection (a-15) of Section 3 of the Firearm
16    Owners Identification Card Act;
17        (4) transfers by persons or entities acting under
18    operation of law or a court order;
19        (5) transfers by persons or entities liquidating all
20    or part of a collection. For purposes of this paragraph
21    (5), "collection" means 2 or more firearms which are of
22    special interest to collectors by reason of some quality
23    other than is associated with firearms intended for
24    sporting use or as offensive or defensive weapons;
25        (6) transfers of firearms that have been rendered
26    permanently inoperable to a nonprofit historical society,

 

 

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1    museum, or institutional collection;
2        (7) transfers by a law enforcement or corrections
3    agency or a law enforcement or corrections officer acting
4    within the course and scope of his or her official duties;
5        (8) (blank); transfers to a State or local law
6    enforcement agency by a person who has his or her Firearm
7    Owner's Identification Card revoked;
8        (9) transfers of curios and relics, as defined under
9    federal law, between collectors licensed under subsection
10    (b) of Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968;
11        (10) transfers by a person or entity licensed as an
12    auctioneer under the Auction License Act;
13        (10.5) transfers of firearms to a resident registered
14    competitor or attendee or non-resident registered
15    competitor or attendee by a licensed federal firearms
16    dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of
17    1968 at a competitive shooting event held at the World
18    Shooting and Recreational Complex that is sanctioned by a
19    national governing body; or
20        (11) transfers between a pawnshop and a customer which
21    amount to a bailment. For purposes of this paragraph (11),
22    "bailment" means the act of placing property in the
23    custody and control of another, by agreement in which the
24    holder is responsible for the safekeeping and return of
25    the property.
26(Source: P.A. 100-1178, eff. 1-18-19; 101-80, eff. 7-12-19.)
 

 

 

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1    (430 ILCS 68/5-40)
2    Sec. 5-40. Qualifications for operation.
3    (a) Each certified licensee shall submit with each
4application for certification or renewal an affidavit to the
5Illinois State Police stating that each owner, employee, or
6other agent of the certified licensee who sells or conducts
7transfers of firearms for the certified licensee is at least
821 years of age, has a currently valid Firearm Owner's
9Identification Card and, for a renewal, has completed the
10training required under Section 5-30. The affidavit must also
11contain the name and Firearm Owner's Identification Card
12number of each owner, employee, or other agent who sells or
13conducts transfers of firearms for the certified licensee. If
14an owner, employee, or other agent of the certified licensee
15is not otherwise a resident of this State, the certified
16licensee shall submit an affidavit stating that the owner,
17employee, or other agent has undergone a background check and
18is not prohibited from owning or possessing firearms.
19    (b) In addition to the affidavit required under subsection
20(a), within 30 days of a new owner, employee, or other agent
21beginning selling or conducting transfers of firearms for the
22certified licensee, the certified licensee shall submit an
23affidavit to the Illinois State Police stating the date that
24the new owner, employee, or other agent began selling or
25conducting transfers of firearms for the certified licensee,

 

 

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1and providing the information required in subsection (a) for
2that new owner, employee, or other agent.
3    (c) If a certified licensee has a license, certificate, or
4permit to sell, lease, transfer, purchase, or possess firearms
5issued by the federal government or the government of any
6state revoked or suspended for good cause within the preceding
74 years, the Illinois State Police may consider revoking or
8suspending the certified licenses in this State. In making a
9determination of whether or not to revoke or suspend a
10certified license in this State, the Illinois State Police
11shall consider the number of retail locations the certified
12licensee or any related person or entity operates in this
13State or in other states under the same or different business
14names, and the severity of the infraction in the state in which
15a license was revoked or suspended.
16    (d) Applications and affidavits required under this
17Section are not subject to disclosure by the Illinois State
18Police under the Freedom of Information Act.
19(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)
 
20    (430 ILCS 68/5-85)
21    Sec. 5-85. Disciplinary sanctions.
22    (a) For violations of this Act not penalized under Section
235-15, the Illinois State Police may refuse to renew or
24restore, or may reprimand, place on probation, suspend,
25revoke, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action

 

 

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1against any licensee, and may impose a fine commensurate with
2the severity of the violation not to exceed $10,000 for each
3violation for any of the following, consistent with the
4Protection of Lawful Commerce in Arms Act, 15 U.S.C. 7901
5through 7903:
6        (1) Violations of this Act, or any law applicable to
7    the sale or transfer of firearms.
8        (2) A pattern of practice or other behavior which
9    demonstrates incapacity or incompetency to practice under
10    this Act.
11        (3) Aiding or assisting another person in violating
12    any provision of this Act or rules adopted under this Act.
13        (4) Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in
14    response to a written request made by the Illinois State
15    Police.
16        (5) Conviction of, plea of guilty to, or plea of nolo
17    contendere to any crime that disqualifies the person from
18    obtaining a firearm valid Firearm Owner's Identification
19    Card.
20        (6) Continued practice, although the person has become
21    unfit to practice due to any of the following:
22            (A) Any circumstance that disqualifies the person
23        from obtaining a firearm valid Firearm Owner's
24        Identification Card or concealed carry license.
25            (B) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs
26        defined in law as controlled substances, alcohol, or

 

 

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1        any other substance that results in the inability to
2        practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.
3        (7) Receiving, directly or indirectly, compensation
4    for any firearms sold or transferred illegally.
5        (8) Discipline by another United States jurisdiction,
6    foreign nation, or governmental agency, if at least one of
7    the grounds for the discipline is the same or
8    substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Act.
9        (9) Violation of any disciplinary order imposed on a
10    licensee by the Illinois State Police.
11        (10) A finding by the Illinois State Police that the
12    licensee, after having his or her certified license placed
13    on probationary status, has violated the terms of
14    probation.
15        (11) A fraudulent or material misstatement in the
16    completion of an affirmative obligation or inquiry by law
17    enforcement.
18    (b) All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid
19within 90 days after the effective date of the final order
20imposing the fine.
21(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)
 
22    Section 70. The Wildlife Code is amended by changing
23Sections 3.2 and 3.2a as follows:
 
24    (520 ILCS 5/3.2)  (from Ch. 61, par. 3.2)

 

 

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1    Sec. 3.2. Hunting license; application; instruction.
2Before the Department or any county, city, village, township,
3incorporated town clerk or the clerk's duly designated agent
4or any other person authorized or designated by the Department
5to issue hunting licenses shall issue a hunting license to any
6person, the person shall file the person's application with
7the Department or other party authorized to issue licenses on
8a form provided by the Department and further give definite
9proof of identity and place of legal residence. Each clerk
10designating agents to issue licenses and stamps shall furnish
11the Department, within 10 days following the appointment, the
12names and mailing addresses of the agents. Each clerk or the
13clerk's duly designated agent shall be authorized to sell
14licenses and stamps only within the territorial area for which
15the clerk was elected or appointed. No duly designated agent
16is authorized to furnish licenses or stamps for issuance by
17any other business establishment. Each application shall be
18executed and sworn to and shall set forth the name and
19description of the applicant and place of residence.
20    No hunting license shall be issued to any person born on or
21after January 1, 1980 unless that person presents the person
22who is authorized to issue the license evidence that the
23person seeking the license has held a hunting license issued
24by the State of Illinois in a prior year, or a certificate of
25competency as provided in this Section. Persons under 18 years
26of age may be issued a Lifetime Hunting or Sportsmen's

 

 

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1Combination License as provided under Section 20-45 of the
2Fish and Aquatic Life Code but shall not be entitled to hunt
3alone, without the supervision of an adult age 21 or older,
4unless they have a certificate of competency as provided in
5this Section and the certificate is in their possession while
6hunting.
7    The Department of Natural Resources shall authorize
8personnel of the Department or certified volunteer instructors
9to conduct courses, of not less than 10 hours in length, in
10firearms and hunter safety, which may include training in bow
11and arrow safety, at regularly specified intervals throughout
12the State. Persons successfully completing the course shall
13receive a certificate of competency. The Department of Natural
14Resources may further cooperate with any reputable association
15or organization in establishing courses if the organization
16has as one of its objectives the promotion of safety in the
17handling of firearms or bow and arrow.
18    The Department of Natural Resources shall designate any
19person found by it to be competent to give instruction in the
20handling of firearms, hunter safety, and bow and arrow. The
21persons so appointed shall give the course of instruction and
22upon the successful completion shall issue to the person
23instructed a certificate of competency in the safe handling of
24firearms, hunter safety, and bow and arrow. No charge shall be
25made for any course of instruction except for materials or
26ammunition consumed. The Department of Natural Resources shall

 

 

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1furnish information on the requirements of hunter safety
2education programs to be distributed free of charge to
3applicants for hunting licenses by the persons appointed and
4authorized to issue licenses. Funds for the conducting of
5firearms and hunter safety courses shall be taken from the fee
6charged for the Firearm Owners Identification Card.
7    The fee for a hunting license to hunt all species for a
8resident of Illinois is $12. For residents age 65 or older,
9and, commencing with the 2012 license year, resident veterans
10of the United States Armed Forces after returning from service
11abroad or mobilization by the President of the United States
12as an active duty member of the United States Armed Forces, the
13Illinois National Guard, or the Reserves of the United States
14Armed Forces, the fee is one-half of the fee charged for a
15hunting license to hunt all species for a resident of
16Illinois. Veterans must provide to the Department acceptable
17verification of their service. The Department shall establish
18by administrative rule the procedure by which such
19verification of service shall be made to the Department for
20the purpose of issuing resident veterans hunting licenses at a
21reduced fee. The fee for a hunting license to hunt all species
22shall be $1 for residents over 75 years of age. Nonresidents
23shall be charged $57 for a hunting license.
24    Residents of this State may obtain a 3-year hunting
25license to hunt all species as described in Section 3.1 for 3
26times the annual fee. For residents age 65 or older and

 

 

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1resident veterans of the United States Armed Forces after
2returning from service abroad or mobilization by the President
3of the United States, the fee is one-half of the fee charged
4for a 3-year hunting license to hunt all species as described
5in Section 3.1 for a resident of this State. Veterans must
6provide to the Department, per administrative rule,
7verification of their service. The Department shall establish
8what constitutes suitable verification of service for the
9purpose of issuing resident veterans 3-year hunting licenses
10at a reduced fee.
11    Nonresidents may be issued a nonresident hunting license
12for a period not to exceed 10 consecutive days' hunting in the
13State and shall be charged a fee of $35.
14    A special nonresident hunting license authorizing a
15nonresident to take game birds by hunting on a game breeding
16and hunting preserve area only, established under Section
173.27, shall be issued upon proper application being made and
18payment of a fee equal to that for a resident hunting license.
19The expiration date of this license shall be on the same date
20each year that game breeding and hunting preserve area
21licenses expire.
22    Each applicant for a State Migratory Waterfowl Stamp,
23regardless of the applicant's residence or other condition,
24shall pay a fee of $15 and shall receive a stamp. The fee for a
25State Migratory Waterfowl Stamp shall be waived for residents
26over 75 years of age. Except as provided under Section 20-45 of

 

 

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1the Fish and Aquatic Life Code, the stamp shall be signed by
2the person or affixed to the person's license or permit in a
3space designated by the Department for that purpose.
4    Each applicant for a State Habitat Stamp, regardless of
5the applicant's residence or other condition, shall pay a fee
6of $5 and shall receive a stamp. The fee for a State Habitat
7Stamp shall be waived for residents over 75 years of age.
8Except as provided under Section 20-45 of the Fish and Aquatic
9Life Code, the stamp shall be signed by the person or affixed
10to the person's license or permit in a space designated by the
11Department for that purpose.
12    Nothing in this Section shall be construed as to require
13the purchase of more than one State Habitat Stamp by any person
14in any one license year.
15    The fees for State Pheasant Stamps and State Furbearer
16Stamps shall be waived for residents over 75 years of age.
17    The Department shall furnish the holders of hunting
18licenses and stamps with an insignia as evidence of possession
19of license, or license and stamp, as the Department may
20consider advisable. The insignia shall be exhibited and used
21as the Department may order.
22    All other hunting licenses and all State stamps shall
23expire upon March 31 of each year. Three-year hunting licenses
24shall expire on March 31 of the 2nd year after the year in
25which the license is issued.
26    Every person holding any license, permit, or stamp issued

 

 

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1under the provisions of this Act shall have it in the person's
2possession for immediate presentation for inspection to the
3officers and authorized employees of the Department, any
4sheriff, deputy sheriff, or any other peace officer making a
5demand for it. This provision shall not apply to Department
6owned or managed sites where it is required that all hunters
7deposit their license or , permit, or Firearm Owner's
8Identification Card at the check station upon entering the
9hunting areas.
10    For the purposes of this Section, "acceptable
11verification" means official documentation from the Department
12of Defense or the appropriate Major Command showing
13mobilization dates or service abroad dates, including: (i) a
14DD-214, (ii) a letter from the Illinois Department of Military
15Affairs for members of the Illinois National Guard, (iii) a
16letter from the Regional Reserve Command for members of the
17Armed Forces Reserve, (iv) a letter from the Major Command
18covering Illinois for active duty members, (v) personnel
19records for mobilized State employees, and (vi) any other
20documentation that the Department, by administrative rule,
21deems acceptable to establish dates of mobilization or service
22abroad.
23    For the purposes of this Section, the term "service
24abroad" means active duty service outside of the 50 United
25States and the District of Columbia, and includes all active
26duty service in territories and possessions of the United

 

 

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1States.
2(Source: P.A. 103-456, eff. 1-1-24; 104-325, eff. 1-1-26.)
 
3    (520 ILCS 5/3.2a)  (from Ch. 61, par. 3.2a)
4    Sec. 3.2a. Every person holding any license, permit or
5stamp issued under the provisions hereof shall have it in his
6possession for immediate presentation for inspection to the
7officers and authorized employees of the Department, any
8sheriff, deputy sheriff or any other peace officer making a
9demand for it. This provision shall not apply to Department
10owned or managed sites where it is required that all hunters
11deposit their license or , permit or Firearm Owner's
12Identification Card at the check station upon entering the
13hunting areas.
14(Source: P.A. 85-152.)
 
15    Section 71. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by
16changing Section 2-116 as follows:
 
17    (625 ILCS 5/2-116)  (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 2-116)
18    Sec. 2-116. Secretary of State Department of Police.
19    (a) The Secretary of State and the officers, inspectors,
20and investigators appointed by him shall cooperate with the
21Illinois State Police and the sheriffs and police in enforcing
22the laws regulating the operation of vehicles and the use of
23the highways.

 

 

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1    (b) The Secretary of State may provide training and
2education for members of his office in traffic regulation, the
3promotion of traffic safety and the enforcement of laws vested
4in the Secretary of State for administration and enforcement
5regulating the operation of vehicles and the use of the
6highways.
7    (c) The Secretary of State may provide distinctive
8uniforms and badges for officers, inspectors and investigators
9employed in the administration of laws relating to the
10operation of vehicles and the use of the highways and vesting
11the administration and enforcement of such laws in the
12Secretary of State.
13    (c-5) The Director of the Secretary of State Department of
14Police shall establish a program to allow a Secretary of State
15Police officer, inspector, or investigator who is honorably
16retiring in good standing to purchase either one or both of the
17following: (1) any Secretary of State Department of Police
18badge previously issued to that officer, inspector, or
19investigator; or (2) if the officer, inspector, or
20investigator has a currently valid Firearm Owner's
21Identification Card, the service firearm issued or previously
22issued to the officer, inspector, or investigator by the
23Secretary of State Department of Police. The cost of the
24firearm shall be the replacement value of the firearm and not
25the firearm's fair market value.
26    (d) The Secretary of State Department of Police is

 

 

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1authorized to:
2        (1) investigate the origins, activities, persons, and
3    incidents of crime and the ways and means, if any, to
4    redress the victims of crimes, and study the impact, if
5    any, of legislation relative to the criminal laws of this
6    State related thereto and conduct any other investigations
7    as may be provided by law;
8        (2) employ skilled experts, technicians,
9    investigators, special agents, or otherwise specially
10    qualified persons to aid in preventing or detecting crime,
11    apprehending criminals, or preparing and presenting
12    evidence of violations of the criminal laws of the State;
13        (3) cooperate with the police of cities, villages, and
14    incorporated towns, and with the police officers of any
15    county, in enforcing the laws of the State and in making
16    arrests;
17        (4) provide, as may be required by law, assistance to
18    local law enforcement agencies through training,
19    management, and consultant services for local law
20    enforcement agencies, pertaining to law enforcement
21    activities;
22        (5) exercise the rights, powers, and duties which have
23    been vested in it by the Secretary of State Act and this
24    Code; and
25        (6) enforce and administer any other laws in relation
26    to law enforcement as may be vested in the Secretary of

 

 

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1    State Department of Police.
2    Persons within the Secretary of State Department of Police
3who exercise these powers are conservators of the peace and
4have all the powers possessed by policemen in municipalities
5and sheriffs, and may exercise these powers anywhere in the
6State in cooperation with local law enforcement officials.
7These persons may use false or fictitious names in the
8performance of their duties under this Section, upon approval
9of the Director of Police-Secretary of State, and shall not be
10subject to prosecution under the criminal laws for that use.
11    (e) The Secretary of State Department of Police may
12charge, collect, and receive fees or moneys equivalent to the
13cost of providing its personnel, equipment, and services to
14governmental agencies when explicitly requested by a
15governmental agency and according to an intergovernmental
16agreement or memorandums of understanding as provided by this
17Section, including but not limited to fees or moneys
18equivalent to the cost of providing training to other
19governmental agencies on terms and conditions that in the
20judgment of the Director of Police-Secretary of State are in
21the best interest of the Secretary of State. All fees received
22by the Secretary of State Police Department under this Act
23shall be deposited in a special fund in the State Treasury to
24be known as the Secretary of State Police Services Fund. The
25money deposited in the Secretary of State Police Services Fund
26shall be appropriated to the Secretary of State Department of

 

 

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1Police as provided for in subsection (g).
2    (f) The Secretary of State Department of Police may apply
3for grants or contracts and receive, expend, allocate, or
4disburse moneys made available by public or private entities,
5including, but not limited to, contracts, bequests, grants, or
6receiving equipment from corporations, foundations, or public
7or private institutions of higher learning.
8    (g) The Secretary of State Police Services Fund is hereby
9created as a special fund in the State Treasury. All moneys
10received under this Section by the Secretary of State
11Department of Police shall be deposited into the Secretary of
12State Police Services Fund to be appropriated to the Secretary
13of State Department of Police for purposes as indicated by the
14grantor or contractor or, in the case of moneys bequeathed or
15granted for no specific purpose, for any purpose as deemed
16appropriate by the Director of Police-Secretary of State in
17administering the responsibilities of the Secretary of State
18Department of Police.
19(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)
 
20    Section 75. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by
21changing Sections 2-7.1, 2-7.5, 12-3.05, 16-0.1, 17-30, 24-1,
2224-1.1, 24-1.6, 24-1.8, 24-1.9, 24-1.10, 24-2, 24-3, 24-3.1,
2324-3.2, 24-3.4, 24-3.5, 24-3B, 24-4.1, 24-5.1, and 24-9 and
24adding Section 24-4.5 as follows:
 

 

 

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1    (720 ILCS 5/2-7.1)
2    Sec. 2-7.1. "Firearm "Firearm" and "firearm ammunition".
3"Firearm "Firearm" and "firearm ammunition" means any
4self-contained cartridge or shotgun shell, by whatever name
5known, which is designed to be used or adaptable to use in a
6firearm; excluding, however:
7    (1) any ammunition exclusively designed for use with a
8device used exclusively for signaling or safety and required
9or recommended by the United States Coast Guard or the
10Interstate Commerce Commission; and
11    (2) any ammunition designed exclusively for use with a
12stud or rivet driver or other similar industrial ammunition    
13have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 1.1 of the
14Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.
15(Source: P.A. 91-544, eff. 1-1-00.)
 
16    (720 ILCS 5/2-7.5)
17    Sec. 2-7.5. "Firearm". Except as otherwise provided in a
18specific Section, "firearm" means any device, by whatever name
19known, which is designed to expel a projectile or projectiles
20by the action of an explosion, expansion of gas or escape of
21gas; excluding, however:
22    (1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or B-B
23gun which expels a single globular projectile not exceeding
24.18 inch in diameter or which has a maximum muzzle velocity of
25less than 700 feet per second;

 

 

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1    (1.1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or
2B-B gun which expels breakable paint balls containing washable
3marking colors;    
4    (2) any device used exclusively for signaling or safety
5and required or recommended by the United States Coast Guard
6or the Interstate Commerce Commission;
7    (3) any device used exclusively for the firing of stud
8cartridges, explosive rivets, or similar industrial
9ammunition; and
10    (4) an antique firearm (other than a machine-gun) which,
11although designed as a weapon, the Illinois State Police finds
12by reason of the date of its manufacture, value, design, and
13other characteristics is primarily a collector's item and is
14not likely to be used as a weapon has the meaning ascribed to
15it in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card
16Act.
17(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)
 
18    (720 ILCS 5/12-3.05)  (was 720 ILCS 5/12-4)
19    Sec. 12-3.05. Aggravated battery.
20    (a) Offense based on injury. A person commits aggravated
21battery when, in committing a battery, other than by the
22discharge of a firearm, he or she knowingly does any of the
23following:
24        (1) Causes great bodily harm or permanent disability
25    or disfigurement.

 

 

SB3171- 201 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        (2) Causes severe and permanent disability, great
2    bodily harm, or disfigurement by means of a caustic or
3    flammable substance, a poisonous gas, a deadly biological
4    or chemical contaminant or agent, a radioactive substance,
5    or a bomb or explosive compound.
6        (3) Causes great bodily harm or permanent disability
7    or disfigurement to an individual whom the person knows to
8    be a peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman,
9    private security officer, correctional institution
10    employee, or Department of Human Services employee
11    supervising or controlling sexually dangerous persons or
12    sexually violent persons:
13            (i) performing his or her official duties;
14            (ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her
15        official duties; or
16            (iii) battered in retaliation for performing his
17        or her official duties.
18        (4) Causes great bodily harm or permanent disability
19    or disfigurement to an individual 60 years of age or
20    older.
21        (5) Strangles another individual.
22    (b) Offense based on injury to a child or person with an
23intellectual disability. A person who is at least 18 years of
24age commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery,
25he or she knowingly and without legal justification by any
26means:

 

 

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1        (1) causes great bodily harm or permanent disability
2    or disfigurement to any child under the age of 13 years, or
3    to any person with a severe or profound intellectual
4    disability; or
5        (2) causes bodily harm or disability or disfigurement
6    to any child under the age of 13 years or to any person
7    with a severe or profound intellectual disability.
8    (c) Offense based on location of conduct. A person commits
9aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, other than
10by the discharge of a firearm, he or she is or the person
11battered is on or about a public way, public property, a public
12place of accommodation or amusement, a sports venue, or a
13domestic violence shelter, or in a church, synagogue, mosque,
14or other building, structure, or place used for religious
15worship.
16    (d) Offense based on status of victim. A person commits
17aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, other than
18by discharge of a firearm, he or she knows the individual
19battered to be any of the following:
20        (1) A person 60 years of age or older.
21        (2) A person who is pregnant or has a physical
22    disability.
23        (3) A teacher or school employee upon school grounds
24    or grounds adjacent to a school or in any part of a
25    building used for school purposes.
26        (4) A peace officer, community policing volunteer,

 

 

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1    fireman, private security officer, correctional
2    institution employee, or Department of Human Services
3    employee supervising or controlling sexually dangerous
4    persons or sexually violent persons:
5            (i) performing his or her official duties;
6            (ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her
7        official duties; or
8            (iii) battered in retaliation for performing his
9        or her official duties.
10        (5) A judge, emergency management worker, emergency
11    medical services personnel, or utility worker:
12            (i) performing his or her official duties;
13            (ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her
14        official duties; or
15            (iii) battered in retaliation for performing his
16        or her official duties.
17        (6) An officer or employee of the State of Illinois, a
18    unit of local government, or a school district, while
19    performing his or her official duties.
20        (7) A transit employee performing his or her official
21    duties, or a transit passenger.
22        (8) A taxi driver on duty.
23        (9) A merchant who detains the person for an alleged
24    commission of retail theft under Section 16-26 of this
25    Code and the person without legal justification by any
26    means causes bodily harm to the merchant.

 

 

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1        (10) A person authorized to serve process under
2    Section 2-202 of the Code of Civil Procedure or a special
3    process server appointed by the circuit court while that
4    individual is in the performance of his or her duties as a
5    process server.
6        (11) A nurse while in the performance of his or her
7    duties as a nurse.
8        (12) A merchant: (i) while performing his or her
9    duties, including, but not limited to, relaying directions
10    for healthcare or safety from his or her supervisor or
11    employer or relaying health or safety guidelines,
12    recommendations, regulations, or rules from a federal,
13    State, or local public health agency; and (ii) during a
14    disaster declared by the Governor, or a state of emergency
15    declared by the mayor of the municipality in which the
16    merchant is located, due to a public health emergency and
17    for a period of 6 months after such declaration.
18    (e) Offense based on use of a firearm. A person commits
19aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, he or she
20knowingly does any of the following:
21        (1) Discharges a firearm, other than a machine gun or
22    a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury
23    to another person.
24        (2) Discharges a firearm, other than a machine gun or
25    a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury
26    to a person he or she knows to be a peace officer,

 

 

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1    community policing volunteer, person summoned by a police
2    officer, fireman, private security officer, correctional
3    institution employee, or emergency management worker:
4            (i) performing his or her official duties;
5            (ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her
6        official duties; or
7            (iii) battered in retaliation for performing his
8        or her official duties.
9        (3) Discharges a firearm, other than a machine gun or
10    a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury
11    to a person he or she knows to be emergency medical
12    services personnel:
13            (i) performing his or her official duties;
14            (ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her
15        official duties; or
16            (iii) battered in retaliation for performing his
17        or her official duties.
18        (4) Discharges a firearm and causes any injury to a
19    person he or she knows to be a teacher, a student in a
20    school, or a school employee, and the teacher, student, or
21    employee is upon school grounds or grounds adjacent to a
22    school or in any part of a building used for school
23    purposes.
24        (5) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped
25    with a silencer, and causes any injury to another person.
26        (6) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped

 

 

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1    with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or
2    she knows to be a peace officer, community policing
3    volunteer, person summoned by a police officer, fireman,
4    private security officer, correctional institution
5    employee or emergency management worker:
6            (i) performing his or her official duties;
7            (ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her
8        official duties; or
9            (iii) battered in retaliation for performing his
10        or her official duties.
11        (7) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped
12    with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or
13    she knows to be emergency medical services personnel:
14            (i) performing his or her official duties;
15            (ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her
16        official duties; or
17            (iii) battered in retaliation for performing his
18        or her official duties.
19        (8) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped
20    with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or
21    she knows to be a teacher, or a student in a school, or a
22    school employee, and the teacher, student, or employee is
23    upon school grounds or grounds adjacent to a school or in
24    any part of a building used for school purposes.
25    (f) Offense based on use of a weapon or device. A person
26commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, he

 

 

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1or she does any of the following:
2        (1) Uses a deadly weapon other than by discharge of a
3    firearm, or uses an air rifle as defined in Section
4    24.8-0.1 of this Code.
5        (2) Wears a hood, robe, or mask to conceal his or her
6    identity.
7        (3) Knowingly and without lawful justification shines
8    or flashes a laser gunsight or other laser device attached
9    to a firearm, or used in concert with a firearm, so that
10    the laser beam strikes upon or against the person of
11    another.
12        (4) Knowingly video or audio records the offense with
13    the intent to disseminate the recording.
14    (g) Offense based on certain conduct. A person commits
15aggravated battery when, other than by discharge of a firearm,
16he or she does any of the following:
17        (1) Violates Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled
18    Substances Act by unlawfully delivering a controlled
19    substance to another and any user experiences great bodily
20    harm or permanent disability as a result of the injection,
21    inhalation, or ingestion of any amount of the controlled
22    substance.
23        (2) Knowingly administers to an individual or causes
24    him or her to take, without his or her consent or by threat
25    or deception, and for other than medical purposes, any
26    intoxicating, poisonous, stupefying, narcotic,

 

 

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1    anesthetic, or controlled substance, or gives to another
2    person any food containing any substance or object
3    intended to cause physical injury if eaten.
4        (3) Knowingly causes or attempts to cause a
5    correctional institution employee or Department of Human
6    Services employee to come into contact with blood, seminal
7    fluid, urine, or feces by throwing, tossing, or expelling
8    the fluid or material, and the person is an inmate of a
9    penal institution or is a sexually dangerous person or
10    sexually violent person in the custody of the Department
11    of Human Services.
12    (h) Sentence. Unless otherwise provided, aggravated
13battery is a Class 3 felony.
14    Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(4),
15(d)(4), or (g)(3) is a Class 2 felony.
16    Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(3) or
17(g)(1) is a Class 1 felony.
18    Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(1) is a
19Class 1 felony when the aggravated battery was intentional and
20involved the infliction of torture, as defined in paragraph
21(10) of subsection (b-5) of Section 5-8-1 of the Unified Code
22of Corrections, as the infliction of or subjection to extreme
23physical pain, motivated by an intent to increase or prolong
24the pain, suffering, or agony of the victim.
25    Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(1) is a
26Class 2 felony when the person causes great bodily harm or

 

 

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1permanent disability to an individual whom the person knows to
2be a member of a congregation engaged in prayer or other
3religious activities at a church, synagogue, mosque, or other
4building, structure, or place used for religious worship.
5    Aggravated battery under subdivision (a)(5) is a Class 1
6felony if:
7        (A) the person used or attempted to use a dangerous
8    instrument while committing the offense;
9        (B) the person caused great bodily harm or permanent
10    disability or disfigurement to the other person while
11    committing the offense; or
12        (C) the person has been previously convicted of a
13    violation of subdivision (a)(5) under the laws of this
14    State or laws similar to subdivision (a)(5) of any other
15    state.
16    Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(1) is a
17Class X felony.
18    Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(2) is a
19Class X felony for which a person shall be sentenced to a term
20of imprisonment of a minimum of 6 years and a maximum of 45
21years.
22    Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(5) is a
23Class X felony for which a person shall be sentenced to a term
24of imprisonment of a minimum of 12 years and a maximum of 45
25years.
26    Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(2),

 

 

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1(e)(3), or (e)(4) is a Class X felony for which a person shall
2be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of a minimum of 15 years
3and a maximum of 60 years.
4    Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(6),
5(e)(7), or (e)(8) is a Class X felony for which a person shall
6be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of a minimum of 20 years
7and a maximum of 60 years.
8    Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (b)(1) is a
9Class X felony, except that:
10        (1) if the person committed the offense while armed
11    with a firearm, 15 years shall be added to the term of
12    imprisonment imposed by the court;
13        (2) if, during the commission of the offense, the
14    person personally discharged a firearm, 20 years shall be
15    added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;
16        (3) if, during the commission of the offense, the
17    person personally discharged a firearm that proximately
18    caused great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent
19    disfigurement, or death to another person, 25 years or up
20    to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of
21    imprisonment imposed by the court.
22    (i) Definitions. In this Section:
23    "Building or other structure used to provide shelter" has
24the meaning ascribed to "shelter" in Section 1 of the Domestic
25Violence Shelters Act.
26    "Domestic violence" has the meaning ascribed to it in

 

 

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1Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.
2    "Domestic violence shelter" means any building or other
3structure used to provide shelter or other services to victims
4or to the dependent children of victims of domestic violence
5pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or the
6Domestic Violence Shelters Act, or any place within 500 feet
7of such a building or other structure in the case of a person
8who is going to or from such a building or other structure.
9    "Firearm" has the meaning provided under Section 2-7.5 of
10this Code 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act,
11and does not include an air rifle as defined by Section
1224.8-0.1 of this Code.
13    "Machine gun" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section
1424-1 of this Code.
15    "Merchant" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section
1616-0.1 of this Code.
17    "Strangle" means intentionally impeding the normal
18breathing or circulation of the blood of an individual by
19applying pressure on the throat or neck of that individual or
20by blocking the nose or mouth of that individual.
21(Source: P.A. 103-51, eff. 1-1-24.)
 
22    (720 ILCS 5/16-0.1)
23    Sec. 16-0.1. Definitions. In this Article, unless the
24context clearly requires otherwise, the following terms are
25defined as indicated:

 

 

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1    "Access" means to use, instruct, communicate with, store
2data in, retrieve or intercept data from, or otherwise utilize
3any services of a computer.
4    "Coin-operated machine" includes any automatic vending
5machine or any part thereof, parking meter, coin telephone,
6coin-operated transit turnstile, transit fare box, coin
7laundry machine, coin dry cleaning machine, amusement machine,
8music machine, vending machine dispensing goods or services,
9or money changer.
10    "Communication device" means any type of instrument,
11device, machine, or equipment which is capable of
12transmitting, acquiring, decrypting, or receiving any
13telephonic, electronic, data, Internet access, audio, video,
14microwave, or radio transmissions, signals, communications, or
15services, including the receipt, acquisition, transmission, or
16decryption of all such communications, transmissions, signals,
17or services provided by or through any cable television, fiber
18optic, telephone, satellite, microwave, radio, Internet-based,
19data transmission, or wireless distribution network, system or
20facility; or any part, accessory, or component thereof,
21including any computer circuit, security module, smart card,
22software, computer chip, electronic mechanism or other
23component, accessory or part of any communication device which
24is capable of facilitating the transmission, decryption,
25acquisition or reception of all such communications,
26transmissions, signals, or services.

 

 

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1    "Communication service" means any service lawfully
2provided for a charge or compensation to facilitate the lawful
3origination, transmission, emission, or reception of signs,
4signals, data, writings, images, and sounds or intelligence of
5any nature by telephone, including cellular telephones or a
6wire, wireless, radio, electromagnetic, photo-electronic or
7photo-optical system; and also any service lawfully provided
8by any radio, telephone, cable television, fiber optic,
9satellite, microwave, Internet-based or wireless distribution
10network, system, facility or technology, including, but not
11limited to, any and all electronic, data, video, audio,
12Internet access, telephonic, microwave and radio
13communications, transmissions, signals and services, and any
14such communications, transmissions, signals and services
15lawfully provided directly or indirectly by or through any of
16those networks, systems, facilities or technologies.
17    "Communication service provider" means: (1) any person or
18entity providing any communication service, whether directly
19or indirectly, as a reseller, including, but not limited to, a
20cellular, paging or other wireless communications company or
21other person or entity which, for a fee, supplies the
22facility, cell site, mobile telephone switching office or
23other equipment or communication service; (2) any person or
24entity owning or operating any cable television, fiber optic,
25satellite, telephone, wireless, microwave, radio, data
26transmission or Internet-based distribution network, system or

 

 

SB3171- 214 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1facility; and (3) any person or entity providing any
2communication service directly or indirectly by or through any
3such distribution system, network or facility.
4    "Computer" means a device that accepts, processes, stores,
5retrieves or outputs data, and includes but is not limited to
6auxiliary storage and telecommunications devices connected to
7computers.
8    "Continuing course of conduct" means a series of acts, and
9the accompanying mental state necessary for the crime in
10question, irrespective of whether the series of acts are
11continuous or intermittent.
12    "Delivery container" means any bakery basket of wire or
13plastic used to transport or store bread or bakery products,
14any dairy case of wire or plastic used to transport or store
15dairy products, and any dolly or cart of 2 or 4 wheels used to
16transport or store any bakery or dairy product.
17    "Document-making implement" means any implement,
18impression, template, computer file, computer disc, electronic
19device, computer hardware, computer software, instrument, or
20device that is used to make a real or fictitious or fraudulent
21personal identification document.
22    "Financial transaction device" means any of the following:
23        (1) An electronic funds transfer card.
24        (2) A credit card.
25        (3) A debit card.
26        (4) A point-of-sale card.

 

 

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1        (5) Any instrument, device, card, plate, code, account
2    number, personal identification number, or a record or
3    copy of a code, account number, or personal identification
4    number or other means of access to a credit account or
5    deposit account, or a driver's license or State
6    identification card used to access a proprietary account,
7    other than access originated solely by a paper instrument,
8    that can be used alone or in conjunction with another
9    access device, for any of the following purposes:
10            (A) Obtaining money, cash refund or credit
11        account, credit, goods, services, or any other thing
12        of value.
13            (B) Certifying or guaranteeing to a person or
14        business the availability to the device holder of
15        funds on deposit to honor a draft or check payable to
16        the order of that person or business.
17            (C) Providing the device holder access to a
18        deposit account for the purpose of making deposits,
19        withdrawing funds, transferring funds between deposit
20        accounts, obtaining information pertaining to a
21        deposit account, or making an electronic funds
22        transfer.
23    "Full retail value" means the merchant's stated or
24advertised price of the merchandise. "Full retail value"
25includes the aggregate value of property obtained from retail
26thefts committed by the same person as part of a continuing

 

 

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1course of conduct from one or more mercantile establishments
2in a single transaction or in separate transactions over a
3period of one year.
4    "Internet" means an interactive computer service or system
5or an information service, system, or access software provider
6that provides or enables computer access by multiple users to
7a computer server, and includes, but is not limited to, an
8information service, system, or access software provider that
9provides access to a network system commonly known as the
10Internet, or any comparable system or service and also
11includes, but is not limited to, a World Wide Web page,
12newsgroup, message board, mailing list, or chat area on any
13interactive computer service or system or other online
14service.
15    "Library card" means a card or plate issued by a library
16facility for purposes of identifying the person to whom the
17library card was issued as authorized to borrow library
18material, subject to all limitations and conditions imposed on
19the borrowing by the library facility issuing such card.
20    "Library facility" includes any public library or museum,
21or any library or museum of an educational, historical or
22eleemosynary institution, organization or society.
23    "Library material" includes any book, plate, picture,
24photograph, engraving, painting, sculpture, statue, artifact,
25drawing, map, newspaper, pamphlet, broadside, magazine,
26manuscript, document, letter, microfilm, sound recording,

 

 

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1audiovisual material, magnetic or other tape, electronic data
2processing record or other documentary, written or printed
3material regardless of physical form or characteristics, or
4any part thereof, belonging to, or on loan to or otherwise in
5the custody of a library facility.
6    "Manufacture or assembly of an unlawful access device"
7means to make, produce or assemble an unlawful access device
8or to modify, alter, program or re-program any instrument,
9device, machine, equipment or software so that it is capable
10of defeating or circumventing any technology, device or
11software used by the provider, owner or licensee of a
12communication service or of any data, audio or video programs
13or transmissions to protect any such communication, data,
14audio or video services, programs or transmissions from
15unauthorized access, acquisition, disclosure, receipt,
16decryption, communication, transmission or re-transmission.
17    "Manufacture or assembly of an unlawful communication
18device" means to make, produce or assemble an unlawful
19communication or wireless device or to modify, alter, program
20or reprogram a communication or wireless device to be capable
21of acquiring, disrupting, receiving, transmitting, decrypting,
22or facilitating the acquisition, disruption, receipt,
23transmission or decryption of, a communication service without
24the express consent or express authorization of the
25communication service provider, or to knowingly assist others
26in those activities.

 

 

SB3171- 218 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    "Master sound recording" means the original physical
2object on which a given set of sounds were first recorded and
3which the original object from which all subsequent sound
4recordings embodying the same set of sounds are directly or
5indirectly derived.
6    "Merchandise" means any item of tangible personal
7property, including motor fuel.
8    "Merchant" means an owner or operator of any retail
9mercantile establishment or any agent, employee, lessee,
10consignee, officer, director, franchisee, or independent
11contractor of the owner or operator. "Merchant" also means a
12person who receives from an authorized user of a payment card,
13or someone the person believes to be an authorized user, a
14payment card or information from a payment card, or what the
15person believes to be a payment card or information from a
16payment card, as the instrument for obtaining, purchasing or
17receiving goods, services, money, or anything else of value
18from the person.
19    "Motor fuel" means a liquid, regardless of its properties,
20used to propel a vehicle, including gasoline and diesel.
21    "Online" means the use of any electronic or wireless
22device to access the Internet.
23    "Payment card" means a credit card, charge card, debit
24card, or any other card that is issued to an authorized card
25user and that allows the user to obtain, purchase, or receive
26goods, services, money, or anything else of value from a

 

 

SB3171- 219 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1merchant.
2    "Person with a disability" means a person who suffers from
3a physical or mental impairment resulting from disease,
4injury, functional disorder or congenital condition that
5impairs the individual's mental or physical ability to
6independently manage his or her property or financial
7resources, or both.
8    "Personal identification document" means a birth
9certificate, a driver's license, a State identification card,
10a public, government, or private employment identification
11card, a social security card, a license issued under the
12Firearm Concealed Carry Act firearm owner's identification
13card, a credit card, a debit card, or a passport issued to or
14on behalf of a person other than the offender, or any document
15made or issued, or falsely purported to have been made or
16issued, by or under the authority of the United States
17Government, the State of Illinois, or any other state
18political subdivision of any state, or any other governmental
19or quasi-governmental organization that is of a type intended
20for the purpose of identification of an individual, or any
21such document made or altered in a manner that it falsely
22purports to have been made on behalf of or issued to another
23person or by the authority of one who did not give that
24authority.
25    "Personal identifying information" means any of the
26following information:

 

 

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1        (1) A person's name.
2        (2) A person's address.
3        (3) A person's date of birth.
4        (4) A person's telephone number.
5        (5) A person's driver's license number or State of
6    Illinois identification card as assigned by the Secretary
7    of State of the State of Illinois or a similar agency of
8    another state.
9        (6) A person's social security number.
10        (7) A person's public, private, or government
11    employer, place of employment, or employment
12    identification number.
13        (8) The maiden name of a person's mother.
14        (9) The number assigned to a person's depository
15    account, savings account, or brokerage account.
16        (10) The number assigned to a person's credit or debit
17    card, commonly known as a "Visa Card", "MasterCard",
18    "American Express Card", "Discover Card", or other similar
19    cards whether issued by a financial institution,
20    corporation, or business entity.
21        (11) Personal identification numbers.
22        (12) Electronic identification numbers.
23        (13) Digital signals.
24        (14) User names, passwords, and any other word,
25    number, character or combination of the same usable in
26    whole or part to access information relating to a specific

 

 

SB3171- 221 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    individual, or to the actions taken, communications made
2    or received, or other activities or transactions of a
3    specific individual.
4        (15) Any other numbers or information which can be
5    used to access a person's financial resources, or to
6    identify a specific individual, or the actions taken,
7    communications made or received, or other activities or
8    transactions of a specific individual.
9    "Premises of a retail mercantile establishment" includes,
10but is not limited to, the retail mercantile establishment;
11any common use areas in shopping centers; and all parking
12areas set aside by a merchant or on behalf of a merchant for
13the parking of vehicles for the convenience of the patrons of
14such retail mercantile establishment.
15    "Public water, gas, or power supply, or other public
16services" mean any service subject to regulation by the
17Illinois Commerce Commission; any service furnished by a
18public utility that is owned and operated by any political
19subdivision, public institution of higher education or
20municipal corporation of this State; any service furnished by
21any public utility that is owned by such political
22subdivision, public institution of higher education, or
23municipal corporation and operated by any of its lessees or
24operating agents; any service furnished by an electric
25cooperative as defined in Section 3.4 of the Electric Supplier
26Act; or wireless service or other service regulated by the

 

 

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1Federal Communications Commission.
2    "Publish" means to communicate or disseminate information
3to any one or more persons, either orally, in person, or by
4telephone, radio or television or in writing of any kind,
5including, without limitation, a letter or memorandum,
6circular or handbill, newspaper or magazine article or book.
7    "Radio frequency identification device" means any
8implement, computer file, computer disc, electronic device,
9computer hardware, computer software, or instrument that is
10used to activate, read, receive, or decode information stored
11on a RFID tag or transponder attached to a personal
12identification document.
13    "RFID tag or transponder" means a chip or device that
14contains personal identifying information from which the
15personal identifying information can be read or decoded by
16another device emitting a radio frequency that activates or
17powers a radio frequency emission response from the chip or
18transponder.
19    "Reencoder" means an electronic device that places encoded
20information from the magnetic strip or stripe of a payment
21card onto the magnetic strip or stripe of a different payment
22card.
23    "Retail mercantile establishment" means any place where
24merchandise is displayed, held, stored or offered for sale to
25the public.
26    "Scanning device" means a scanner, reader, or any other

 

 

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1electronic device that is used to access, read, scan, obtain,
2memorize, or store, temporarily or permanently, information
3encoded on the magnetic strip or stripe of a payment card.
4    "Shopping cart" means those push carts of the type or
5types which are commonly provided by grocery stores, drug
6stores or other retail mercantile establishments for the use
7of the public in transporting commodities in stores and
8markets and, incidentally, from the stores to a place outside
9the store.
10    "Sound or audio visual recording" means any sound or audio
11visual phonograph record, disc, pre-recorded tape, film, wire,
12magnetic tape or other object, device or medium, now known or
13hereafter invented, by which sounds or images may be
14reproduced with or without the use of any additional machine,
15equipment or device.
16    "Stored value card" means any card, gift card, instrument,
17or device issued with or without fee for the use of the
18cardholder to obtain money, goods, services, or anything else
19of value. Stored value cards include, but are not limited to,
20cards issued for use as a stored value card or gift card, and
21an account identification number or symbol used to identify a
22stored value card. "Stored value card" does not include a
23prepaid card usable at multiple, unaffiliated merchants or at
24automated teller machines, or both. "Stored value card" shall
25only apply to Section 16-25.1 of this Act.
26    "Theft detection device remover" means any tool or device

 

 

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1specifically designed and intended to be used to remove any
2theft detection device from any merchandise.
3    "Under-ring" means to cause the cash register or other
4sales recording device to reflect less than the full retail
5value of the merchandise.
6    "Unidentified sound or audio visual recording" means a
7sound or audio visual recording without the actual name and
8full and correct street address of the manufacturer, and the
9name of the actual performers or groups prominently and
10legibly printed on the outside cover or jacket and on the label
11of such sound or audio visual recording.
12    "Unlawful access device" means any type of instrument,
13device, machine, equipment, technology, or software which is
14primarily possessed, used, designed, assembled, manufactured,
15sold, distributed or offered, promoted or advertised for the
16purpose of defeating or circumventing any technology, device
17or software, or any component or part thereof, used by the
18provider, owner or licensee of any communication service or of
19any data, audio or video programs or transmissions to protect
20any such communication, audio or video services, programs or
21transmissions from unauthorized access, acquisition, receipt,
22decryption, disclosure, communication, transmission or
23re-transmission.
24    "Unlawful communication device" means any electronic
25serial number, mobile identification number, personal
26identification number or any communication or wireless device

 

 

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1that is capable of acquiring or facilitating the acquisition
2of a communication service without the express consent or
3express authorization of the communication service provider,
4or that has been altered, modified, programmed or
5reprogrammed, alone or in conjunction with another
6communication or wireless device or other equipment, to so
7acquire or facilitate the unauthorized acquisition of a
8communication service. "Unlawful communication device" also
9means:
10        (1) any phone altered to obtain service without the
11    express consent or express authorization of the
12    communication service provider, tumbler phone, counterfeit
13    or clone phone, tumbler microchip, counterfeit or clone
14    microchip, scanning receiver of wireless communication
15    service or other instrument capable of disguising its
16    identity or location or of gaining unauthorized access to
17    a communications or wireless system operated by a
18    communication service provider; and
19        (2) any communication or wireless device which is
20    capable of, or has been altered, designed, modified,
21    programmed or reprogrammed, alone or in conjunction with
22    another communication or wireless device or devices, so as
23    to be capable of, facilitating the disruption,
24    acquisition, receipt, transmission or decryption of a
25    communication service without the express consent or
26    express authorization of the communication service

 

 

SB3171- 226 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    provider, including, but not limited to, any device,
2    technology, product, service, equipment, computer software
3    or component or part thereof, primarily distributed, sold,
4    designed, assembled, manufactured, modified, programmed,
5    reprogrammed or used for the purpose of providing the
6    unauthorized receipt of, transmission of, disruption of,
7    decryption of, access to or acquisition of any
8    communication service provided by any communication
9    service provider.
10    "Vehicle" means a motor vehicle, motorcycle, or farm
11implement that is self-propelled and that uses motor fuel for
12propulsion.
13    "Wireless device" includes any type of instrument, device,
14machine, or equipment that is capable of transmitting or
15receiving telephonic, electronic or radio communications, or
16any part of such instrument, device, machine, or equipment, or
17any computer circuit, computer chip, electronic mechanism, or
18other component that is capable of facilitating the
19transmission or reception of telephonic, electronic, or radio
20communications.
21(Source: P.A. 102-757, eff. 5-13-22.)
 
22    (720 ILCS 5/17-30)  (was 720 ILCS 5/16C-2)
23    Sec. 17-30. Defaced, altered, or removed manufacturer or
24owner identification number.     
25    (a) Unlawful sale of household appliances. A person

 

 

SB3171- 227 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1commits unlawful sale of household appliances when he or she
2knowingly, with the intent to defraud or deceive another,
3keeps for sale, within any commercial context, any household
4appliance with a missing, defaced, obliterated, or otherwise
5altered manufacturer's identification number.
6    (b) Construction equipment identification defacement. A
7person commits construction equipment identification
8defacement when he or she knowingly changes, alters, removes,
9mutilates, or obliterates a permanently affixed serial number,
10product identification number, part number, component
11identification number, owner-applied identification, or other
12mark of identification attached to or stamped, inscribed,
13molded, or etched into a machine or other equipment, whether
14stationary or mobile or self-propelled, or a part of such
15machine or equipment, used in the construction, maintenance,
16or demolition of buildings, structures, bridges, tunnels,
17sewers, utility pipes or lines, ditches or open cuts, roads,
18highways, dams, airports, or waterways or in material handling
19for such projects.
20    The trier of fact may infer that the defendant has
21knowingly changed, altered, removed, or obliterated the serial
22number, product identification number, part number, component
23identification number, owner-applied identification number, or
24other mark of identification, if the defendant was in
25possession of any machine or other equipment or a part of such
26machine or equipment used in the construction, maintenance, or

 

 

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1demolition of buildings, structures, bridges, tunnels, sewers,
2utility pipes or lines, ditches or open cuts, roads, highways,
3dams, airports, or waterways or in material handling for such
4projects upon which any such serial number, product
5identification number, part number, component identification
6number, owner-applied identification number, or other mark of
7identification has been changed, altered, removed, or
8obliterated.
9    (c) Defacement of manufacturer's serial number or
10identification mark. A person commits defacement of a
11manufacturer's serial number or identification mark when he or
12she knowingly removes, alters, defaces, covers, or destroys
13the manufacturer's serial number or any other manufacturer's
14number or distinguishing identification mark upon any machine
15or other article of merchandise, other than a motor vehicle as
16defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a
17firearm as defined in the Firearm Owners Identification Card
18Act, with the intent of concealing or destroying the identity
19of such machine or other article of merchandise.
20    (d) Sentence.
21        (1) A violation of subsection (a) of this Section is a
22    Class 4 felony if the value of the appliance or appliances
23    exceeds $1,000 and a Class B misdemeanor if the value of
24    the appliance or appliances is $1,000 or less.
25        (2) A violation of subsection (b) of this Section is a
26    Class A misdemeanor.

 

 

SB3171- 229 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        (3) A violation of subsection (c) of this Section is a
2    Class B misdemeanor.
3    (e) No liability shall be imposed upon any person for the
4unintentional failure to comply with subsection (a).
5    (f) Definitions. In this Section:
6    "Commercial context" means a continuing business
7enterprise conducted for profit by any person whose primary
8business is the wholesale or retail marketing of household
9appliances, or a significant portion of whose business or
10inventory consists of household appliances kept or sold on a
11wholesale or retail basis.
12    "Household appliance" means any gas or electric device or
13machine marketed for use as home entertainment or for
14facilitating or expediting household tasks or chores. The term
15shall include but not necessarily be limited to refrigerators,
16freezers, ranges, radios, television sets, vacuum cleaners,
17toasters, dishwashers, and other similar household items.
18    "Manufacturer's identification number" means any serial
19number or other similar numerical or alphabetical designation
20imprinted upon or attached to or placed, stamped, or otherwise
21imprinted upon or attached to a household appliance or item by
22the manufacturer for purposes of identifying a particular
23appliance or item individually or by lot number.
24(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)
 
25    (720 ILCS 5/24-1)  (from Ch. 38, par. 24-1)

 

 

SB3171- 230 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    Sec. 24-1. Unlawful possession of weapons.
2    (a) A person commits the offense of unlawful possession of
3weapons when he knowingly:
4        (1) Sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses or
5    carries any bludgeon, black-jack, slung-shot, sand-club,
6    sand-bag, metal knuckles or other knuckle weapon
7    regardless of its composition, throwing star, or any
8    knife, commonly referred to as a switchblade knife, which
9    has a blade that opens automatically by hand pressure
10    applied to a button, spring or other device in the handle
11    of the knife, or a ballistic knife, which is a device that
12    propels a knifelike blade as a projectile by means of a
13    coil spring, elastic material or compressed gas; or
14        (2) Carries or possesses with intent to use the same
15    unlawfully against another, a dagger, dirk, billy,
16    dangerous knife, razor, stiletto, broken bottle or other
17    piece of glass, stun gun or taser or any other dangerous or
18    deadly weapon or instrument of like character; or
19        (2.5) Carries or possesses with intent to use the same
20    unlawfully against another, any firearm in a church,
21    synagogue, mosque, or other building, structure, or place
22    used for religious worship; or
23        (3) Carries on or about his person or in any vehicle, a
24    tear gas gun projector or bomb or any object containing
25    noxious liquid gas or substance, other than an object
26    containing a non-lethal noxious liquid gas or substance

 

 

SB3171- 231 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    designed solely for personal defense carried by a person
2    18 years of age or older; or
3        (4) Carries or possesses in any vehicle or concealed
4    on or about his person except when on his land or in his
5    own abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or
6    on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as
7    an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol,
8    revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm, except that
9    this subsection (a)(4) does not apply to or affect
10    transportation of weapons that meet one of the following
11    conditions:
12            (i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or
13            (ii) are not immediately accessible; or
14            (iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm
15        carrying box, shipping box, or other container by a
16        person eligible under State and federal law to possess
17        a firearm who has been issued a currently valid
18        Firearm Owner's Identification Card; or
19            (iv) are carried or possessed in accordance with
20        the Firearm Concealed Carry Act by a person who has
21        been issued a currently valid license under the
22        Firearm Concealed Carry Act; or
23        (5) Sets a spring gun; or
24        (6) Possesses any device or attachment of any kind
25    designed, used or intended for use in silencing the report
26    of any firearm; or

 

 

SB3171- 232 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        (7) Sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses or
2    carries:
3            (i) a machine gun, which shall be defined for the
4        purposes of this subsection as any weapon, which
5        shoots, is designed to shoot, or can be readily
6        restored to shoot, automatically more than one shot
7        without manually reloading by a single function of the
8        trigger, including the frame or receiver of any such
9        weapon, or sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses,
10        or carries any combination of parts designed or
11        intended for use in converting any weapon into a
12        machine gun, or any combination or parts from which a
13        machine gun can be assembled if such parts are in the
14        possession or under the control of a person;
15            (ii) any rifle having one or more barrels less
16        than 16 inches in length or a shotgun having one or
17        more barrels less than 18 inches in length or any
18        weapon made from a rifle or shotgun, whether by
19        alteration, modification, or otherwise, if such a
20        weapon as modified has an overall length of less than
21        26 inches; or
22            (iii) any bomb, bomb-shell, grenade, bottle or
23        other container containing an explosive substance of
24        over one-quarter ounce for like purposes, such as, but
25        not limited to, black powder bombs and Molotov
26        cocktails or artillery projectiles; or

 

 

SB3171- 233 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        (8) Carries or possesses any firearm, stun gun or
2    taser or other deadly weapon in any place which is
3    licensed to sell intoxicating beverages, or at any public
4    gathering held pursuant to a license issued by any
5    governmental body or any public gathering at which an
6    admission is charged, excluding a place where a showing,
7    demonstration or lecture involving the exhibition of
8    unloaded firearms is conducted.
9        This subsection (a)(8) does not apply to any auction
10    or raffle of a firearm held pursuant to a license or permit
11    issued by a governmental body, nor does it apply to
12    persons engaged in firearm safety training courses; or
13        (9) Carries or possesses in a vehicle or on or about
14    his or her person any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser
15    or firearm or ballistic knife, when he or she is hooded,
16    robed or masked in such manner as to conceal his or her
17    identity; or
18        (10) Carries or possesses on or about his or her
19    person, upon any public street, alley, or other public
20    lands within the corporate limits of a city, village, or
21    incorporated town, except when an invitee thereon or
22    therein, for the purpose of the display of such weapon or
23    the lawful commerce in weapons, or except when on his land
24    or in his or her own abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place
25    of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of
26    another person as an invitee with that person's

 

 

SB3171- 234 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun, or taser or
2    other firearm, except that this subsection (a)(10) does
3    not apply to or affect transportation of weapons that meet
4    one of the following conditions:
5            (i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or
6            (ii) are not immediately accessible; or
7            (iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm
8        carrying box, shipping box, or other container by a
9        person eligible under State and federal law to possess
10        a firearm who has been issued a currently valid
11        Firearm Owner's Identification Card; or
12            (iv) are carried or possessed in accordance with
13        the Firearm Concealed Carry Act by a person who has
14        been issued a currently valid license under the
15        Firearm Concealed Carry Act.
16        A "stun gun or taser", as used in this paragraph (a)
17    means (i) any device which is powered by electrical
18    charging units, such as, batteries, and which fires one or
19    several barbs attached to a length of wire and which, upon
20    hitting a human, can send out a current capable of
21    disrupting the person's nervous system in such a manner as
22    to render him incapable of normal functioning or (ii) any
23    device which is powered by electrical charging units, such
24    as batteries, and which, upon contact with a human or
25    clothing worn by a human, can send out current capable of
26    disrupting the person's nervous system in such a manner as

 

 

SB3171- 235 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    to render him incapable of normal functioning; or
2        (11) Sells, manufactures, delivers, imports,
3    possesses, or purchases any assault weapon attachment or
4    .50 caliber cartridge in violation of Section 24-1.9 or
5    any explosive bullet. For purposes of this paragraph (a)
6    "explosive bullet" means the projectile portion of an
7    ammunition cartridge which contains or carries an
8    explosive charge which will explode upon contact with the
9    flesh of a human or an animal. "Cartridge" means a tubular
10    metal case having a projectile affixed at the front
11    thereof and a cap or primer at the rear end thereof, with
12    the propellant contained in such tube between the
13    projectile and the cap; or
14        (12) (Blank); or
15        (13) Carries or possesses on or about his or her
16    person while in a building occupied by a unit of
17    government, a billy club, other weapon of like character,
18    or other instrument of like character intended for use as
19    a weapon. For the purposes of this Section, "billy club"
20    means a short stick or club commonly carried by police
21    officers which is either telescopic or constructed of a
22    solid piece of wood or other man-made material; or
23        (14) Manufactures, possesses, sells, or offers to
24    sell, purchase, manufacture, import, transfer, or use any
25    device, part, kit, tool, accessory, or combination of
26    parts that is designed to and functions to increase the

 

 

SB3171- 236 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    rate of fire of a semiautomatic firearm above the standard
2    rate of fire for semiautomatic firearms that is not
3    equipped with that device, part, or combination of parts;
4    or
5        (15) Carries or possesses any assault weapon or .50
6    caliber rifle in violation of Section 24-1.9; or
7        (16) Manufactures, sells, delivers, imports, or
8    purchases any assault weapon or .50 caliber rifle in
9    violation of Section 24-1.9.
10    (b) Sentence. A person convicted of a violation of
11subsection 24-1(a)(1) through (5), subsection 24-1(a)(10),
12subsection 24-1(a)(11), subsection 24-1(a)(13), or 24-1(a)(15)
13commits a Class A misdemeanor. A person convicted of a
14violation of subsection 24-1(a)(8) or 24-1(a)(9) commits a
15Class 4 felony; a person convicted of a violation of
16subsection 24-1(a)(6), 24-1(a)(7)(ii), 24-1(a)(7)(iii), or
1724-1(a)(16) commits a Class 3 felony. A person convicted of a
18violation of subsection 24-1(a)(7)(i) commits a Class 2 felony
19and shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less
20than 3 years and not more than 7 years, unless the weapon is
21possessed in the passenger compartment of a motor vehicle as
22defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or on
23the person, while the weapon is loaded, in which case it shall
24be a Class X felony. A person convicted of a second or
25subsequent violation of subsection 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(8),
2624-1(a)(9), 24-1(a)(10), or 24-1(a)(15) commits a Class 3

 

 

SB3171- 237 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1felony. A person convicted of a violation of subsection
224-1(a)(2.5) or 24-1(a)(14) commits a Class 2 felony. The
3possession of each weapon or device in violation of this
4Section constitutes a single and separate violation.
5    (c) Violations in specific places.
6        (1) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(6) or
7    24-1(a)(7) in any school, regardless of the time of day or
8    the time of year, in residential property owned, operated
9    or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public
10    housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income
11    development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the
12    real property comprising any school, regardless of the
13    time of day or the time of year, on residential property
14    owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or
15    leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered
16    site or mixed-income development, on the real property
17    comprising any public park, on the real property
18    comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased
19    or contracted by a school to transport students to or from
20    school or a school related activity, in any conveyance
21    owned, leased, or contracted by a public transportation
22    agency, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real
23    property comprising any school, public park, courthouse,
24    public transportation facility, or residential property
25    owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or
26    leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered

 

 

SB3171- 238 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    site or mixed-income development commits a Class 2 felony
2    and shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not
3    less than 3 years and not more than 7 years.
4        (1.5) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(4),
5    24-1(a)(9), or 24-1(a)(10) in any school, regardless of
6    the time of day or the time of year, in residential
7    property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing
8    agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a
9    scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public
10    park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any
11    school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year,
12    on residential property owned, operated, or managed by a
13    public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency
14    as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development,
15    on the real property comprising any public park, on the
16    real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance
17    owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport
18    students to or from school or a school related activity,
19    in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a public
20    transportation agency, or on any public way within 1,000
21    feet of the real property comprising any school, public
22    park, courthouse, public transportation facility, or
23    residential property owned, operated, or managed by a
24    public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency
25    as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development
26    commits a Class 3 felony.

 

 

SB3171- 239 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        (2) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(1),
2    24-1(a)(2), or 24-1(a)(3) in any school, regardless of the
3    time of day or the time of year, in residential property
4    owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or
5    leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered
6    site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a
7    courthouse, on the real property comprising any school,
8    regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on
9    residential property owned, operated or managed by a
10    public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency
11    as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development,
12    on the real property comprising any public park, on the
13    real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance
14    owned, leased or contracted by a school to transport
15    students to or from school or a school related activity,
16    in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a public
17    transportation agency, or on any public way within 1,000
18    feet of the real property comprising any school, public
19    park, courthouse, public transportation facility, or
20    residential property owned, operated, or managed by a
21    public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency
22    as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development
23    commits a Class 4 felony. "Courthouse" means any building
24    that is used by the Circuit, Appellate, or Supreme Court
25    of this State for the conduct of official business.
26        (3) Paragraphs (1), (1.5), and (2) of this subsection

 

 

SB3171- 240 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    (c) shall not apply to law enforcement officers or
2    security officers of such school, college, or university
3    or to students carrying or possessing firearms for use in
4    training courses, parades, hunting, target shooting on
5    school ranges, or otherwise with the consent of school
6    authorities and which firearms are transported unloaded
7    enclosed in a suitable case, box, or transportation
8    package.
9        (4) For the purposes of this subsection (c), "school"
10    means any public or private elementary or secondary
11    school, community college, college, or university.
12        (5) For the purposes of this subsection (c), "public
13    transportation agency" means a public or private agency
14    that provides for the transportation or conveyance of
15    persons by means available to the general public, except
16    for transportation by automobiles not used for conveyance
17    of the general public as passengers; and "public
18    transportation facility" means a terminal or other place
19    where one may obtain public transportation.
20    (d) The presence in an automobile other than a public
21omnibus of any weapon, instrument or substance referred to in
22subsection (a)(7) is prima facie evidence that it is in the
23possession of, and is being carried by, all persons occupying
24such automobile at the time such weapon, instrument or
25substance is found, except under the following circumstances:
26(i) if such weapon, instrument or instrumentality is found

 

 

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1upon the person of one of the occupants therein; or (ii) if
2such weapon, instrument or substance is found in an automobile
3operated for hire by a duly licensed driver in the due, lawful
4and proper pursuit of his or her trade, then such presumption
5shall not apply to the driver.
6    (e) Exemptions.
7        (1) Crossbows, Common or Compound bows and Underwater
8    Spearguns are exempted from the definition of ballistic
9    knife as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of
10    this Section.
11        (2) The provision of paragraph (1) of subsection (a)
12    of this Section prohibiting the sale, manufacture,
13    purchase, possession, or carrying of any knife, commonly
14    referred to as a switchblade knife, which has a blade that
15    opens automatically by hand pressure applied to a button,
16    spring or other device in the handle of the knife, does not
17    apply to a person eligible under State and federal law to
18    possess a firearm who possesses a currently valid Firearm
19    Owner's Identification Card previously issued in his or
20    her name by the Illinois State Police or to a person or an
21    entity engaged in the business of selling or manufacturing
22    switchblade knives.
23(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-1116, eff. 1-10-23;
24103-822, eff. 1-1-25.)
 
25    (720 ILCS 5/24-1.1)  (from Ch. 38, par. 24-1.1)

 

 

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1    Sec. 24-1.1. Unlawful possession of weapons by felons or
2persons in the custody of the Department of Corrections
3facilities.
4    (a) It is unlawful for a person to knowingly possess on or
5about his person or on his land or in his own abode or fixed
6place of business any weapon prohibited under Section 24-1 of
7this Act or any firearm or any firearm ammunition if the person
8has been convicted of a felony under the laws of this State or
9any other jurisdiction. This Section shall not apply if the
10person has been granted relief under this subsection by the
11Director of the Illinois State Police under Section 10 of the
12Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. A person prohibited
13from possessing a firearm under this subsection (a) may
14petition the Director of the Illinois State Police for a
15hearing and relief from the prohibition, unless the
16prohibition was based upon a forcible felony, stalking,
17aggravated stalking, domestic battery, any violation of the
18Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine
19Control and Community Protection Act, or the Cannabis Control
20Act that is classified as a Class 2 or greater felony, any
21felony violation of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or
22the Criminal Code of 2012, or any adjudication as a delinquent
23minor for the commission of an offense that if committed by an
24adult would be a felony, in which case the person may petition
25the circuit court in writing in the county of his or her
26residence for a hearing and relief from the prohibition. The

 

 

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1Director or court may grant the relief if it is established by
2the petitioner to the court's or Director's satisfaction that:    
3        (1) when in the circuit court, the State's Attorney
4    has been served with a written copy of the petition at
5    least 30 days before any hearing in the circuit court and
6    at the hearing the State's Attorney was afforded an
7    opportunity to present evidence and object to the
8    petition;
9        (2) the petitioner has not been convicted of a
10    forcible felony under the laws of this State or any other
11    jurisdiction within 20 years of the filing of the
12    petition, or at least 20 years have passed since the end of
13    any period of imprisonment imposed in relation to that
14    conviction;
15        (3) the circumstances regarding a criminal conviction,
16    where applicable, the petitioner's criminal history and
17    his or her reputation are such that the petitioner will
18    not be likely to act in a manner dangerous to public
19    safety;
20        (4) granting relief would not be contrary to the
21    public interest; and
22        (5) granting relief would not be contrary to federal
23    law.    
24    (b) It is unlawful for any person confined in a penal
25institution, which is a facility of the Illinois Department of
26Corrections, to possess any weapon prohibited under Section

 

 

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124-1 of this Code or any firearm or firearm ammunition,
2regardless of the intent with which he possesses it.
3    (c) It shall be an affirmative defense to a violation of
4subsection (b), that such possession was specifically
5authorized by rule, regulation, or directive of the Illinois
6Department of Corrections or order issued pursuant thereto.
7    (d) The defense of necessity is not available to a person
8who is charged with a violation of subsection (b) of this
9Section.
10    (e) Sentence. Violation of this Section by a person not
11confined in a penal institution shall be a Class 3 felony for
12which the person shall be sentenced to no less than 2 years and
13no more than 10 years. A second or subsequent violation of this
14Section shall be a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be
15sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years
16and not more than 14 years, except as provided for in Section
175-4.5-110 of the Unified Code of Corrections. Violation of
18this Section by a person not confined in a penal institution
19who has been convicted of a forcible felony, a felony
20violation of Article 24 of this Code or of the Firearm Owners
21Identification Card Act, stalking or aggravated stalking, or a
22Class 2 or greater felony under the Illinois Controlled
23Substances Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or the
24Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act is a
25Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to not
26less than 3 years and not more than 14 years, except as

 

 

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1provided for in Section 5-4.5-110 of the Unified Code of
2Corrections. Violation of this Section by a person who is on
3parole or mandatory supervised release is a Class 2 felony for
4which the person shall be sentenced to not less than 3 years
5and not more than 14 years, except as provided for in Section
65-4.5-110 of the Unified Code of Corrections. Violation of
7this Section by a person not confined in a penal institution is
8a Class X felony when the firearm possessed is a machine gun.
9Any person who violates this Section while confined in a penal
10institution, which is a facility of the Illinois Department of
11Corrections, is guilty of a Class 1 felony, if he possesses any
12weapon prohibited under Section 24-1 of this Code regardless
13of the intent with which he possesses it, a Class X felony if
14he possesses any firearm, firearm ammunition or explosive, and
15a Class X felony for which the offender shall be sentenced to
16not less than 12 years and not more than 50 years when the
17firearm possessed is a machine gun. A violation of this
18Section while wearing or in possession of body armor as
19defined in Section 33F-1 is a Class X felony punishable by a
20term of imprisonment of not less than 10 years and not more
21than 40 years. The possession of each firearm or firearm
22ammunition in violation of this Section constitutes a single
23and separate violation.
24(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 103-822, eff. 1-1-25.)
 
25    (720 ILCS 5/24-1.6)

 

 

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1    Sec. 24-1.6. Aggravated unlawful possession of a weapon.
2    (a) A person commits the offense of aggravated unlawful
3possession of a weapon when he or she knowingly:
4        (1) Carries on or about his or her person or in any
5    vehicle or concealed on or about his or her person except
6    when on his or her land or in his or her abode, legal
7    dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in
8    the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with
9    that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun
10    or taser or other firearm; or
11        (2) Carries or possesses on or about his or her
12    person, upon any public street, alley, or other public
13    lands within the corporate limits of a city, village or
14    incorporated town, except when an invitee thereon or
15    therein, for the purpose of the display of such weapon or
16    the lawful commerce in weapons, or except when on his or
17    her own land or in his or her own abode, legal dwelling, or
18    fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal
19    dwelling of another person as an invitee with that
20    person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or
21    taser or other firearm; and
22        (3) One of the following factors is present:
23            (A) the firearm, other than a pistol, revolver, or
24        handgun, possessed was uncased, loaded, and
25        immediately accessible at the time of the offense; or
26            (A-5) the pistol, revolver, or handgun possessed

 

 

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1        was uncased, loaded, and immediately accessible at the
2        time of the offense and the person possessing the
3        pistol, revolver, or handgun has not been issued a
4        currently valid license under the Firearm Concealed
5        Carry Act; or
6            (B) the firearm, other than a pistol, revolver, or
7        handgun, possessed was uncased, unloaded, and the
8        ammunition for the weapon was immediately accessible
9        at the time of the offense; or
10            (B-5) the pistol, revolver, or handgun possessed
11        was uncased, unloaded, and the ammunition for the
12        weapon was immediately accessible at the time of the
13        offense and the person possessing the pistol,
14        revolver, or handgun has not been issued a currently
15        valid license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act;
16        or
17            (C) (blank); or the person possessing the firearm
18        has not been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's
19        Identification Card; or
20            (D) the person possessing the weapon was
21        previously adjudicated a delinquent minor under the
22        Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for an act that if committed
23        by an adult would be a felony; or
24            (E) the person possessing the weapon was engaged
25        in a misdemeanor violation of the Cannabis Control
26        Act, in a misdemeanor violation of the Illinois

 

 

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1        Controlled Substances Act, or in a misdemeanor
2        violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community
3        Protection Act; or
4            (F) (blank); or
5            (G) the person possessing the weapon had an order
6        of protection issued against him or her within the
7        previous 2 years; or
8            (H) the person possessing the weapon was engaged
9        in the commission or attempted commission of a
10        misdemeanor involving the use or threat of violence
11        against the person or property of another; or
12            (I) the person possessing the weapon was under 21
13        years of age and in possession of a handgun, unless the
14        person under 21 is engaged in lawful activities under
15        the Wildlife Code or described in subsection
16        24-2(b)(1), (b)(3), or 24-2(f).
17    (a-5) "Handgun" as used in this Section has the meaning
18given to it in Section 5 of the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.
19    (b) "Stun gun or taser" as used in this Section has the
20same definition given to it in Section 24-1 of this Code.
21    (c) This Section does not apply to or affect the
22transportation or possession of weapons that:
23        (i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or
24        (ii) are not immediately accessible; or
25        (iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm
26    carrying box, shipping box, or other container by a person

 

 

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1    is eligible under State and federal law to possess a
2    firearm who has been issued a currently valid Firearm
3    Owner's Identification Card.
4    (d) Sentence.
5        (1) Aggravated unlawful possession of a weapon is a
6    Class 4 felony; a second or subsequent offense is a Class 2
7    felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of
8    imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7
9    years, except as provided for in Section 5-4.5-110 of the
10    Unified Code of Corrections.
11        (2) (Blank). Except as otherwise provided in
12    paragraphs (3) and (4) of this subsection (d), a first
13    offense of aggravated unlawful possession of a weapon
14    committed with a firearm by a person 18 years of age or
15    older where the factors listed in both items (A) and (C) or
16    both items (A-5) and (C) of paragraph (3) of subsection
17    (a) are present is a Class 4 felony, for which the person
18    shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less
19    than one year and not more than 3 years.
20        (3) Aggravated unlawful possession of a weapon by a
21    person who has been previously convicted of a felony in
22    this State or another jurisdiction is a Class 2 felony for
23    which the person shall be sentenced to a term of
24    imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7
25    years, except as provided for in Section 5-4.5-110 of the
26    Unified Code of Corrections.

 

 

SB3171- 250 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        (4) Aggravated unlawful possession of a weapon while
2    wearing or in possession of body armor as defined in
3    Section 33F-1 by a person who is prohibited under State or
4    federal law from possessing a firearm has not been issued
5    a valid Firearms Owner's Identification Card in accordance
6    with Section 5 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card
7    Act is a Class X felony.
8    (e) The possession of each firearm in violation of this
9Section constitutes a single and separate violation.
10(Source: P.A. 103-822, eff. 1-1-25.)
 
11    (720 ILCS 5/24-1.8)
12    Sec. 24-1.8. Unlawful possession of a firearm by a street
13gang member.
14    (a) A person commits unlawful possession of a firearm by a
15street gang member when he or she knowingly:
16        (1) possesses, carries, or conceals on or about his or
17    her person a firearm and firearm ammunition while on any
18    street, road, alley, gangway, sidewalk, or any other
19    lands, except when inside his or her own abode or inside
20    his or her fixed place of business, and has not been issued
21    a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card and
22    is a member of a street gang; or
23        (2) possesses or carries in any vehicle a firearm and
24    firearm ammunition which are both immediately accessible
25    at the time of the offense while on any street, road,

 

 

SB3171- 251 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    alley, or any other lands, except when inside his or her
2    own abode or garage, and has not been issued a currently
3    valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card and is a member
4    of a street gang.
5    (b) Unlawful possession of a firearm by a street gang
6member is a Class 2 felony for which the person, if sentenced
7to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to no less than 3
8years and no more than 10 years. A period of probation, a term
9of periodic imprisonment or conditional discharge shall not be
10imposed for the offense of unlawful possession of a firearm by
11a street gang member when the firearm was loaded or contained
12firearm ammunition and the court shall sentence the offender
13to not less than the minimum term of imprisonment authorized
14for the Class 2 felony.
15    (c) For purposes of this Section:
16        "Street gang" or "gang" has the meaning ascribed to it
17    in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus
18    Prevention Act.
19        "Street gang member" or "gang member" has the meaning
20    ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang
21    Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.
22(Source: P.A. 96-829, eff. 12-3-09.)
 
23    (720 ILCS 5/24-1.9)
24    Sec. 24-1.9. Manufacture, possession, delivery, sale, and
25purchase of assault weapons, .50 caliber rifles, and .50

 

 

SB3171- 252 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1caliber cartridges.
2    (a) Definitions. In this Section:
3    (1) "Assault weapon" means any of the following, except as
4provided in subdivision (2) of this subsection:
5        (A) A semiautomatic rifle that has the capacity to
6    accept a detachable magazine or that may be readily
7    modified to accept a detachable magazine, if the firearm
8    has one or more of the following:
9            (i) a pistol grip or thumbhole stock;
10            (ii) any feature capable of functioning as a
11        protruding grip that can be held by the non-trigger
12        hand;
13            (iii) a folding, telescoping, thumbhole, or
14        detachable stock, or a stock that is otherwise
15        foldable or adjustable in a manner that operates to
16        reduce the length, size, or any other dimension, or
17        otherwise enhances the concealability of, the weapon;
18            (iv) a flash suppressor;
19            (v) a grenade launcher;
20            (vi) a shroud attached to the barrel or that
21        partially or completely encircles the barrel, allowing
22        the bearer to hold the firearm with the non-trigger
23        hand without being burned, but excluding a slide that
24        encloses the barrel.
25        (B) A semiautomatic rifle that has a fixed magazine
26    with the capacity to accept more than 10 rounds, except

 

 

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1    for an attached tubular device designed to accept, and
2    capable of operating only with, .22 caliber rimfire
3    ammunition.
4        (C) A semiautomatic pistol that has the capacity to
5    accept a detachable magazine or that may be readily
6    modified to accept a detachable magazine, if the firearm
7    has one or more of the following:
8            (i) a threaded barrel;
9            (ii) a second pistol grip or another feature
10        capable of functioning as a protruding grip that can
11        be held by the non-trigger hand;
12            (iii) a shroud attached to the barrel or that
13        partially or completely encircles the barrel, allowing
14        the bearer to hold the firearm with the non-trigger
15        hand without being burned, but excluding a slide that
16        encloses the barrel;
17            (iv) a flash suppressor;
18            (v) the capacity to accept a detachable magazine
19        at some location outside of the pistol grip; or
20            (vi) a buffer tube, arm brace, or other part that
21        protrudes horizontally behind the pistol grip and is
22        designed or redesigned to allow or facilitate a
23        firearm to be fired from the shoulder.
24        (D) A semiautomatic pistol that has a fixed magazine
25    with the capacity to accept more than 15 rounds.
26        (E) Any shotgun with a revolving cylinder.

 

 

SB3171- 254 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        (F) A semiautomatic shotgun that has one or more of
2    the following:
3            (i) a pistol grip or thumbhole stock;
4            (ii) any feature capable of functioning as a
5        protruding grip that can be held by the non-trigger
6        hand;
7            (iii) a folding or thumbhole stock;
8            (iv) a grenade launcher;
9            (v) a fixed magazine with the capacity of more
10        than 5 rounds; or
11            (vi) the capacity to accept a detachable magazine.
12        (G) Any semiautomatic firearm that has the capacity to
13    accept a belt ammunition feeding device.
14        (H) Any firearm that has been modified to be operable
15    as an assault weapon as defined in this Section.
16        (I) Any part or combination of parts designed or
17    intended to convert a firearm into an assault weapon,
18    including any combination of parts from which an assault
19    weapon may be readily assembled if those parts are in the
20    possession or under the control of the same person.
21        (J) All of the following rifles, copies, duplicates,
22    variants, or altered facsimiles with the capability of any
23    such weapon:
24            (i) All AK types, including the following:
25                (I) AK, AK47, AK47S, AK-74, AKM, AKS, ARM,
26            MAK90, MISR, NHM90, NHM91, SA85, SA93, Vector Arms

 

 

SB3171- 255 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1            AK-47, VEPR, WASR-10, and WUM.
2                (II) IZHMASH Saiga AK.
3                (III) MAADI AK47 and ARM.
4                (IV) Norinco 56S, 56S2, 84S, and 86S.
5                (V) Poly Technologies AK47 and AKS.
6                (VI) SKS with a detachable magazine.
7            (ii) all AR types, including the following:
8                (I) AR-10.
9                (II) AR-15.
10                (III) Alexander Arms Overmatch Plus 16.
11                (IV) Armalite M15 22LR Carbine.
12                (V) Armalite M15-T.
13                (VI) Barrett REC7.
14                (VII) Beretta AR-70.
15                (VIII) Black Rain Ordnance Recon Scout.
16                (IX) Bushmaster ACR.
17                (X) Bushmaster Carbon 15.
18                (XI) Bushmaster MOE series.
19                (XII) Bushmaster XM15.
20                (XIII) Chiappa Firearms MFour rifles.
21                (XIV) Colt Match Target rifles.
22                (XV) CORE Rifle Systems CORE15 rifles.
23                (XVI) Daniel Defense M4A1 rifles.
24                (XVII) Devil Dog Arms 15 Series rifles.
25                (XVIII) Diamondback DB15 rifles.
26                (XIX) DoubleStar AR rifles.

 

 

SB3171- 256 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1                (XX) DPMS Tactical rifles.
2                (XXI) DSA Inc. ZM-4 Carbine.
3                (XXII) Heckler & Koch MR556.
4                (XXIII) High Standard HSA-15 rifles.
5                (XXIV) Jesse James Nomad AR-15 rifle.
6                (XXV) Knight's Armament SR-15.
7                (XXVI) Lancer L15 rifles.
8                (XXVII) MGI Hydra Series rifles.
9                (XXVIII) Mossberg MMR Tactical rifles.
10                (XXIX) Noreen Firearms BN 36 rifle.
11                (XXX) Olympic Arms.
12                (XXXI) POF USA P415.
13                (XXXII) Precision Firearms AR rifles.
14                (XXXIII) Remington R-15 rifles.
15                (XXXIV) Rhino Arms AR rifles.
16                (XXXV) Rock River Arms LAR-15 or Rock River
17            Arms LAR-47.
18                (XXXVI) Sig Sauer SIG516 rifles and MCX
19            rifles.
20                (XXXVII) Smith & Wesson M&P15 rifles.
21                (XXXVIII) Stag Arms AR rifles.
22                (XXXIX) Sturm, Ruger & Co. SR556 and AR-556
23            rifles.
24                (XL) Uselton Arms Air-Lite M-4 rifles.
25                (XLI) Windham Weaponry AR rifles.
26                (XLII) WMD Guns Big Beast.

 

 

SB3171- 257 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1                (XLIII) Yankee Hill Machine Company, Inc.
2            YHM-15 rifles.
3            (iii) Barrett M107A1.
4            (iv) Barrett M82A1.
5            (v) Beretta CX4 Storm.
6            (vi) Calico Liberty Series.
7            (vii) CETME Sporter.
8            (viii) Daewoo K-1, K-2, Max 1, Max 2, AR 100, and
9        AR 110C.
10            (ix) Fabrique Nationale/FN Herstal FAL, LAR, 22
11        FNC, 308 Match, L1A1 Sporter, PS90, SCAR, and FS2000.
12            (x) Feather Industries AT-9.
13            (xi) Galil Model AR and Model ARM.
14            (xii) Hi-Point Carbine.
15            (xiii) HK-91, HK-93, HK-94, HK-PSG-1, and HK USC.
16            (xiv) IWI TAVOR, Galil ACE rifle.
17            (xv) Kel-Tec Sub-2000, SU-16, and RFB.
18            (xvi) SIG AMT, SIG PE-57, Sig Sauer SG 550, Sig
19        Sauer SG 551, and SIG MCX.
20            (xvii) Springfield Armory SAR-48.
21            (xviii) Steyr AUG.
22            (xix) Sturm, Ruger & Co. Mini-14 Tactical Rifle
23        M-14/20CF.
24            (xx) All Thompson rifles, including the following:
25                (I) Thompson M1SB.
26                (II) Thompson T1100D.

 

 

SB3171- 258 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1                (III) Thompson T150D.
2                (IV) Thompson T1B.
3                (V) Thompson T1B100D.
4                (VI) Thompson T1B50D.
5                (VII) Thompson T1BSB.
6                (VIII) Thompson T1-C.
7                (IX) Thompson T1D.
8                (X) Thompson T1SB.
9                (XI) Thompson T5.
10                (XII) Thompson T5100D.
11                (XIII) Thompson TM1.
12                (XIV) Thompson TM1C.
13            (xxi) UMAREX UZI rifle.
14            (xxii) UZI Mini Carbine, UZI Model A Carbine, and
15        UZI Model B Carbine.
16            (xxiii) Valmet M62S, M71S, and M78.
17            (xxiv) Vector Arms UZI Type.
18            (xxv) Weaver Arms Nighthawk.
19            (xxvi) Wilkinson Arms Linda Carbine.
20        (K) All of the following pistols, copies, duplicates,
21    variants, or altered facsimiles with the capability of any
22    such weapon thereof:
23            (i) All AK types, including the following:
24                (I) Centurion 39 AK pistol.
25                (II) CZ Scorpion pistol.
26                (III) Draco AK-47 pistol.

 

 

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1                (IV) HCR AK-47 pistol.
2                (V) IO Inc. Hellpup AK-47 pistol.
3                (VI) Krinkov pistol.
4                (VII) Mini Draco AK-47 pistol.
5                (VIII) PAP M92 pistol.
6                (IX) Yugo Krebs Krink pistol.
7            (ii) All AR types, including the following:
8                (I) American Spirit AR-15 pistol.
9                (II) Bushmaster Carbon 15 pistol.
10                (III) Chiappa Firearms M4 Pistol GEN II.
11                (IV) CORE Rifle Systems CORE15 Roscoe pistol.
12                (V) Daniel Defense MK18 pistol.
13                (VI) DoubleStar Corporation AR pistol.
14                (VII) DPMS AR-15 pistol.
15                (VIII) Jesse James Nomad AR-15 pistol.
16                (IX) Olympic Arms AR-15 pistol.
17                (X) Osprey Armament MK-18 pistol.
18                (XI) POF USA AR pistols.
19                (XII) Rock River Arms LAR 15 pistol.
20                (XIII) Uselton Arms Air-Lite M-4 pistol.
21            (iii) Calico pistols.
22            (iv) DSA SA58 PKP FAL pistol.
23            (v) Encom MP-9 and MP-45.
24            (vi) Heckler & Koch model SP-89 pistol.
25            (vii) Intratec AB-10, TEC-22 Scorpion, TEC-9, and
26        TEC-DC9.

 

 

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1            (viii) IWI Galil Ace pistol, UZI PRO pistol.
2            (ix) Kel-Tec PLR 16 pistol.
3            (x) All MAC types, including the following:
4                (I) MAC-10.
5                (II) MAC-11.
6                (III) Masterpiece Arms MPA A930 Mini Pistol,
7            MPA460 Pistol, MPA Tactical Pistol, and MPA Mini
8            Tactical Pistol.
9                (IV) Military Armament Corp. Ingram M-11.
10                (V) Velocity Arms VMAC.
11            (xi) Sig Sauer P556 pistol.
12            (xii) Sites Spectre.
13            (xiii) All Thompson types, including the
14        following:
15                (I) Thompson TA510D.
16                (II) Thompson TA5.
17            (xiv) All UZI types, including Micro-UZI.
18        (L) All of the following shotguns, copies, duplicates,
19    variants, or altered facsimiles with the capability of any
20    such weapon thereof:
21            (i) DERYA Anakon MC-1980, Anakon SD12.
22            (ii) Doruk Lethal shotguns.
23            (iii) Franchi LAW-12 and SPAS 12.
24            (iv) All IZHMASH Saiga 12 types, including the
25        following:
26                (I) IZHMASH Saiga 12.

 

 

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1                (II) IZHMASH Saiga 12S.
2                (III) IZHMASH Saiga 12S EXP-01.
3                (IV) IZHMASH Saiga 12K.
4                (V) IZHMASH Saiga 12K-030.
5                (VI) IZHMASH Saiga 12K-040 Taktika.
6            (v) Streetsweeper.
7            (vi) Striker 12.
8    (2) "Assault weapon" does not include:
9        (A) Any firearm that is an unserviceable firearm or
10    has been made permanently inoperable.
11        (B) An antique firearm or a replica of an antique
12    firearm.
13        (C) A firearm that is manually operated by bolt, pump,
14    lever or slide action, unless the firearm is a shotgun
15    with a revolving cylinder.
16        (D) Any air rifle as defined in Section 24.8-0.1 of
17    this Code.
18        (E) Any handgun, as defined under the Firearm
19    Concealed Carry Act, unless otherwise listed in this
20    Section.
21    (3) "Assault weapon attachment" means any device capable
22of being attached to a firearm that is specifically designed
23for making or converting a firearm into any of the firearms
24listed in paragraph (1) of this subsection (a).
25    (4) "Antique firearm" has the meaning ascribed to it in 18
26U.S.C. 921(a)(16).

 

 

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1    (5) ".50 caliber rifle" means a centerfire rifle capable
2of firing a .50 caliber cartridge. The term does not include
3any antique firearm, any shotgun including a shotgun that has
4a rifle barrel, or any muzzle-loader which uses black powder
5for hunting or historical reenactments.
6    (6) ".50 caliber cartridge" means a cartridge in .50 BMG
7caliber, either by designation or actual measurement, that is
8capable of being fired from a centerfire rifle. The term ".50
9caliber cartridge" does not include any memorabilia or display
10item that is filled with a permanent inert substance or that is
11otherwise permanently altered in a manner that prevents ready
12modification for use as live ammunition or shotgun ammunition
13with a caliber measurement that is equal to or greater than .50
14caliber.
15    (7) "Detachable magazine" means an ammunition feeding
16device that may be removed from a firearm without disassembly
17of the firearm action, including an ammunition feeding device
18that may be readily removed from a firearm with the use of a
19bullet, cartridge, accessory, or other tool, or any other
20object that functions as a tool, including a bullet or
21cartridge.
22    (8) "Fixed magazine" means an ammunition feeding device
23that is permanently attached to a firearm, or contained in and
24not removable from a firearm, or that is otherwise not a
25detachable magazine, but does not include an attached tubular
26device designed to accept, and capable of operating only with,

 

 

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1.22 caliber rimfire ammunition.
2    (b) Except as provided in subsections (c), (d), and (e),
3on or after January 10, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act
4102-1116), it is unlawful for any person within this State to
5knowingly manufacture, deliver, sell, import, or purchase or
6cause to be manufactured, delivered, sold, imported, or
7purchased by another, an assault weapon, assault weapon
8attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge.
9    (c) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (d),
10beginning January 1, 2024, it is unlawful for any person
11within this State to knowingly possess an assault weapon,
12assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber
13cartridge.
14    (d) This Section does not apply to a person's possession
15of an assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber
16rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge device if the person lawfully
17possessed that assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50
18caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge prohibited by
19subsection (c) of this Section, if the person has provided in
20an endorsement affidavit, prior to January 1, 2024, under oath
21or affirmation and in the form and manner prescribed by the
22Illinois State Police, no later than October 1, 2023:
23        (1) (blank) the affiant's Firearm Owner's
24    Identification Card number;
25        (2) an affirmation that the affiant: (i) possessed an
26    assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber

 

 

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1    rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge before January 10, 2023
2    (the effective date of Public Act 102-1116); or (ii)
3    inherited the assault weapon, assault weapon attachment,
4    .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge from a person
5    with an endorsement under this Section or from a person
6    authorized under subdivisions (1) through (5) of
7    subsection (e) to possess the assault weapon, assault
8    weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber
9    cartridge; and
10        (3) the make, model, caliber, and serial number of the
11    .50 caliber rifle or assault weapon or assault weapons
12    listed in paragraphs (J), (K), and (L) of subdivision (1)
13    of subsection (a) of this Section possessed by the affiant
14    prior to January 10, 2023 (the effective date of Public
15    Act 102-1116) and any assault weapons identified and
16    published by the Illinois State Police pursuant to this
17    subdivision (3). No later than October 1, 2023, and every
18    October 1 thereafter, the Illinois State Police shall, via
19    rulemaking, identify, publish, and make available on its
20    website, the list of assault weapons subject to an
21    endorsement affidavit under this subsection (d). The list
22    shall identify, but is not limited to, the copies,
23    duplicates, variants, and altered facsimiles of the
24    assault weapons identified in paragraphs (J), (K), and (L)
25    of subdivision (1) of subsection (a) of this Section and
26    shall be consistent with the definition of "assault

 

 

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1    weapon" identified in this Section. The Illinois State
2    Police may adopt emergency rulemaking in accordance with
3    Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.
4    The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45
5    of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and this
6    paragraph is deemed to be necessary for the public
7    interest, safety, and welfare.
8    The affidavit form shall include the following statement
9printed in bold type: "Warning: Entering false information on
10this form is punishable as perjury under Section 32-2 of the
11Criminal Code of 2012. Entering false information on this form
12is a violation of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act."
13    In any administrative, civil, or criminal proceeding in
14this State, a completed endorsement affidavit submitted to the
15Illinois State Police by a person under this Section creates a
16rebuttable presumption that the person is entitled to possess
17and transport the assault weapon, assault weapon attachment,
18.50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge.
19    Beginning 90 days after January 10, 2023 (the effective
20date of Public Act 102-1116), a person authorized under this
21Section to possess an assault weapon, assault weapon
22attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge shall
23possess such items only:
24        (1) on private property owned or immediately
25    controlled by the person;
26        (2) on private property that is not open to the public

 

 

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1    with the express permission of the person who owns or
2    immediately controls such property;
3        (3) while on the premises of a licensed firearms
4    dealer or gunsmith for the purpose of lawful repair;
5        (4) while engaged in the legal use of the assault
6    weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or
7    .50 caliber cartridge at a properly licensed firing range
8    or sport shooting competition venue; or
9        (5) while traveling to or from these locations,
10    provided that the assault weapon, assault weapon
11    attachment, or .50 caliber rifle is unloaded and the
12    assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber
13    rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge is enclosed in a case,
14    firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container.
15    Beginning on January 1, 2024, the person with the
16endorsement for an assault weapon, assault weapon attachment,
17.50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge or a person
18authorized under subdivisions (1) through (5) of subsection
19(e) to possess an assault weapon, assault weapon attachment,
20.50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge may transfer the
21assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle,
22or .50 caliber cartridge only to an heir, an individual
23residing in another state maintaining it in another state, or
24a dealer licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section
25923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968. Within 10 days
26after transfer of the weapon except to an heir, the person

 

 

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1shall notify the Illinois State Police of the name and address
2of the transferee and comply with the requirements of
3subsection (b) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners
4Identification Card Act. The person to whom the weapon or
5ammunition is transferred shall, within 60 days of the
6transfer, complete an affidavit required under this Section. A
7person to whom the weapon is transferred may transfer it only
8as provided in this subsection.
9    Except as provided in subsection (e) and beginning on
10January 1, 2024, any person who moves into this State in
11possession of an assault weapon, assault weapon attachment,
12.50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge shall, within 60
13days, apply for a Firearm Owners Identification Card and    
14complete an endorsement application as outlined in subsection
15(d).
16    Notwithstanding any other law, information contained in
17the endorsement affidavit shall be confidential, is exempt
18from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, and
19shall not be disclosed, except to law enforcement agencies
20acting in the performance of their duties.
21    (e) The provisions of this Section regarding the purchase
22or possession of assault weapons, assault weapon attachments,
23.50 caliber rifles, and .50 cartridges, as well as the
24provisions of this Section that prohibit causing those items
25to be purchased or possessed, do not apply to:
26        (1) Peace officers, as defined in Section 2-13 of this

 

 

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1    Code.
2        (2) Qualified law enforcement officers and qualified
3    retired law enforcement officers as defined in the Law
4    Enforcement Officers Safety Act of 2004 (18 U.S.C. 926B
5    and 926C) and as recognized under Illinois law.
6        (3) Acquisition and possession by a federal, State, or
7    local law enforcement agency for the purpose of equipping
8    the agency's peace officers as defined in paragraph (1) or
9    (2) of this subsection (e).
10        (4) Wardens, superintendents, and keepers of prisons,
11    penitentiaries, jails, and other institutions for the
12    detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense.
13        (5) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of
14    the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while
15    performing their official duties or while traveling to or
16    from their places of duty.
17        (6) Any company that employs armed security officers
18    in this State at a nuclear energy, storage, weapons, or
19    development site or facility regulated by the federal
20    Nuclear Regulatory Commission and any person employed as
21    an armed security force member at a nuclear energy,
22    storage, weapons, or development site or facility
23    regulated by the federal Nuclear Regulatory Commission who
24    has completed the background screening and training
25    mandated by the rules and regulations of the federal
26    Nuclear Regulatory Commission and while performing

 

 

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1    official duties.
2        (7) Any private security contractor agency licensed
3    under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private
4    Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004
5    that employs private security contractors and any private
6    security contractor who is licensed and has been issued a
7    firearm control card under the Private Detective, Private
8    Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith
9    Act of 2004 while performing official duties.
10    The provisions of this Section do not apply to the
11manufacture, delivery, sale, import, purchase, or possession
12of an assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber
13rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge or causing the manufacture,
14delivery, sale, importation, purchase, or possession of those
15items:
16        (A) for sale or transfer to persons authorized under
17    subdivisions (1) through (7) of this subsection (e) to
18    possess those items;
19        (B) for sale or transfer to the United States or any
20    department or agency thereof; or
21        (C) for sale or transfer in another state or for
22    export.
23    This Section does not apply to or affect any of the
24following:
25        (i) Possession of any firearm if that firearm is
26    sanctioned by the International Olympic Committee and by

 

 

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1    USA Shooting, the national governing body for
2    international shooting competition in the United States,
3    but only when the firearm is in the actual possession of an
4    Olympic target shooting competitor or target shooting
5    coach for the purpose of storage, transporting to and from
6    Olympic target shooting practice or events if the firearm
7    is broken down in a nonfunctioning state, is not
8    immediately accessible, or is unloaded and enclosed in a
9    firearm case, carrying box, shipping box, or other similar
10    portable container designed for the safe transportation of
11    firearms, and when the Olympic target shooting competitor
12    or target shooting coach is engaging in those practices or
13    events. For the purposes of this paragraph (8), "firearm"
14    has the meaning provided in Section 2-7.5 1.1 of the
15    Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.
16        (ii) Any nonresident who transports, within 24 hours,
17    a weapon for any lawful purpose from any place where the
18    nonresident may lawfully possess and carry that weapon to
19    any other place where the nonresident may lawfully possess
20    and carry that weapon if, during the transportation, the
21    weapon is unloaded, and neither the weapon nor any
22    ammunition being transported is readily accessible or is
23    directly accessible from the passenger compartment of the
24    transporting vehicle. In the case of a vehicle without a
25    compartment separate from the driver's compartment, the
26    weapon or ammunition shall be contained in a locked

 

 

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1    container other than the glove compartment or console.
2        (iii) Possession of a weapon at an event taking place
3    at the World Shooting and Recreational Complex at Sparta,
4    only while engaged in the legal use of the weapon, or while
5    traveling to or from that location if the weapon is broken
6    down in a nonfunctioning state, is not immediately
7    accessible, or is unloaded and enclosed in a firearm case,
8    carrying box, shipping box, or other similar portable
9    container designed for the safe transportation of
10    firearms.
11        (iv) Possession of a weapon only for hunting use
12    expressly permitted under the Wildlife Code, or while
13    traveling to or from a location authorized for this
14    hunting use under the Wildlife Code if the weapon is
15    broken down in a nonfunctioning state, is not immediately
16    accessible, or is unloaded and enclosed in a firearm case,
17    carrying box, shipping box, or other similar portable
18    container designed for the safe transportation of
19    firearms. By October 1, 2023, the Illinois State Police,
20    in consultation with the Department of Natural Resources,
21    shall adopt rules concerning the list of applicable
22    weapons approved under this subparagraph (iv). The
23    Illinois State Police may adopt emergency rules in
24    accordance with Section 5-45 of the Illinois
25    Administrative Procedure Act. The adoption of emergency
26    rules authorized by Section 5-45 of the Illinois

 

 

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1    Administrative Procedure Act and this paragraph is deemed
2    to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and
3    welfare.
4        (v) The manufacture, transportation, possession, sale,
5    or rental of blank-firing assault weapons and .50 caliber
6    rifles, or the weapon's respective attachments, to persons
7    authorized or permitted, or both authorized and permitted,
8    to acquire and possess these weapons or attachments for
9    the purpose of rental for use solely as props for a motion
10    picture, television, or video production or entertainment
11    event.
12    Any person not subject to this Section may submit an
13endorsement affidavit if the person chooses.
14    (f) Any sale or transfer with a background check initiated
15to the Illinois State Police on or before January 10, 2023 (the
16effective date of Public Act 102-1116) is allowed to be
17completed after January 10, 2023 once an approval is issued by
18the Illinois State Police and any applicable waiting period
19under Section 24-3 has expired.
20    (g) The Illinois State Police shall take all steps
21necessary to carry out the requirements of this Section by
22October 1, 2023.
23    (h) The Illinois State Police shall also develop and
24implement a public notice and public outreach campaign to
25promote awareness about the provisions of Public Act 102-1116
26and to increase compliance with this Section.

 

 

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1(Source: P.A. 102-1116, eff. 1-10-23; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24.)
 
2    (720 ILCS 5/24-1.10)
3    Sec. 24-1.10. Manufacture, delivery, sale, and possession
4of large capacity ammunition feeding devices.
5    (a) In this Section:
6    "Handgun" has the meaning ascribed to it in the Firearm
7Concealed Carry Act.
8    "Long gun" means a rifle or shotgun.
9    "Large capacity ammunition feeding device" means:
10        (1) a magazine, belt, drum, feed strip, or similar
11    device that has a capacity of, or that can be readily
12    restored or converted to accept, more than 10 rounds of
13    ammunition for long guns and more than 15 rounds of
14    ammunition for handguns; or
15        (2) any combination of parts from which a device
16    described in paragraph (1) can be assembled.
17    "Large capacity ammunition feeding device" does not
18include an attached tubular device designed to accept, and
19capable of operating only with, .22 caliber rimfire
20ammunition. "Large capacity ammunition feeding device" does
21not include a tubular magazine that is contained in a
22lever-action firearm or any device that has been made
23permanently inoperable.
24    (b) Except as provided in subsections (e) and (f), it is
25unlawful for any person within this State to knowingly

 

 

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1manufacture, deliver, sell, purchase, or cause to be
2manufactured, delivered, sold, or purchased a large capacity
3ammunition feeding device.
4    (c) Except as provided in subsections (d), (e), and (f),
5and beginning 90 days after January 10, 2023 (the effective
6date of Public Act 102-1116), it is unlawful to knowingly
7possess a large capacity ammunition feeding device.
8    (d) Subsection (c) does not apply to a person's possession
9of a large capacity ammunition feeding device if the person
10lawfully possessed that large capacity ammunition feeding
11device before January 10, 2023 (the effective date of Public
12Act 102-1116), provided that the person shall possess such
13device only:
14        (1) on private property owned or immediately
15    controlled by the person;
16        (2) on private property that is not open to the public
17    with the express permission of the person who owns or
18    immediately controls such property;
19        (3) while on the premises of a licensed firearms
20    dealer or gunsmith for the purpose of lawful repair;
21        (4) while engaged in the legal use of the large
22    capacity ammunition feeding device at a properly licensed
23    firing range or sport shooting competition venue; or
24        (5) while traveling to or from these locations,
25    provided that the large capacity ammunition feeding device
26    is stored unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm

 

 

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1    carrying box, shipping box, or other container.
2    A person authorized under this Section to possess a large
3capacity ammunition feeding device may transfer the large
4capacity ammunition feeding device only to an heir, an
5individual residing in another state maintaining it in another
6state, or a dealer licensed as a federal firearms dealer under
7Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968. Within 10
8days after transfer of the large capacity ammunition feeding
9device except to an heir, the person shall notify the Illinois
10State Police of the name and address of the transferee and
11comply with the requirements of subsection (b) of Section 3 of
12the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. The person to whom
13the large capacity ammunition feeding device is transferred
14shall, within 60 days of the transfer, notify the Illinois
15State Police of the person's acquisition and comply with the
16requirements of subsection (b) of Section 3 of the Firearm
17Owners Identification Card Act. A person to whom the large
18capacity ammunition feeding device is transferred may transfer
19it only as provided in this subsection.
20    Except as provided in subsections (e) and (f) and
21beginning 90 days after January 10, 2023 (the effective date
22of Public Act 102-1116), any person who moves into this State
23in possession of a large capacity ammunition feeding device
24shall, within 60 days, apply for a Firearm Owners
25Identification Card.
26    (e) The provisions of this Section regarding the purchase

 

 

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1or possession of large capacity ammunition feeding devices, as
2well as the provisions of this Section that prohibit causing
3those items to be purchased or possessed, do not apply to:
4        (1) Peace officers as defined in Section 2-13 of this
5    Code.
6        (2) Qualified law enforcement officers and qualified
7    retired law enforcement officers as defined in the Law
8    Enforcement Officers Safety Act of 2004 (18 U.S.C. 926B
9    and 926C) and as recognized under Illinois law.
10        (3) A federal, State, or local law enforcement agency
11    for the purpose of equipping the agency's peace officers
12    as defined in paragraph (1) or (2) of this subsection (e).
13        (4) Wardens, superintendents, and keepers of prisons,
14    penitentiaries, jails, and other institutions for the
15    detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense.
16        (5) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of
17    the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while
18    performing their official duties or while traveling to or
19    from their places of duty.
20        (6) Any company that employs armed security officers
21    in this State at a nuclear energy, storage, weapons, or
22    development site or facility regulated by the federal
23    Nuclear Regulatory Commission and any person employed as
24    an armed security force member at a nuclear energy,
25    storage, weapons, or development site or facility
26    regulated by the federal Nuclear Regulatory Commission who

 

 

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1    has completed the background screening and training
2    mandated by the rules and regulations of the federal
3    Nuclear Regulatory Commission and while performing
4    official duties.
5        (7) Any private security contractor agency licensed
6    under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private
7    Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004
8    that employs private security contractors and any private
9    security contractor who is licensed and has been issued a
10    firearm control card under the Private Detective, Private
11    Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith
12    Act of 2004 while performing official duties.
13    (f) This Section does not apply to or affect any of the
14following:
15        (1) Manufacture, delivery, sale, importation,
16    purchase, or possession or causing to be manufactured,
17    delivered, sold, imported, purchased, or possessed a large
18    capacity ammunition feeding device:
19            (A) for sale or transfer to persons authorized
20        under subdivisions (1) through (7) of subsection (e)
21        to possess those items;
22            (B) for sale or transfer to the United States or
23        any department or agency thereof; or
24            (C) for sale or transfer in another state or for
25        export.
26        (2) Sale or rental of large capacity ammunition

 

 

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1    feeding devices for blank-firing assault weapons and .50
2    caliber rifles, to persons authorized or permitted, or
3    both authorized and permitted, to acquire these devices
4    for the purpose of rental for use solely as props for a
5    motion picture, television, or video production or
6    entertainment event.
7    (g) Sentence. A person who knowingly manufactures,
8delivers, sells, purchases, possesses, or causes to be
9manufactured, delivered, sold, possessed, or purchased in
10violation of this Section a large capacity ammunition feeding
11device capable of holding more than 10 rounds of ammunition
12for long guns or more than 15 rounds of ammunition for handguns
13commits a petty offense with a fine of $1,000 for each
14violation.
15    (h) The Illinois State Police shall also develop and
16implement a public notice and public outreach campaign to
17promote awareness about the provisions of Public Act 102-1116
18and to increase compliance with this Section.
19(Source: P.A. 102-1116, eff. 1-10-23; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24.)
 
20    (720 ILCS 5/24-2)
21    Sec. 24-2. Exemptions.
22    (a) Subsections 24-1(a)(3), 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(10), and
2324-1(a)(13) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any of
24the following:
25        (1) Peace officers, and any person summoned by a peace

 

 

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1    officer to assist in making arrests or preserving the
2    peace, while actually engaged in assisting such officer.
3        (2) Wardens, superintendents, and keepers of prisons,
4    penitentiaries, jails, and other institutions for the
5    detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense,
6    while in the performance of their official duty, or while
7    commuting between their homes and places of employment.
8        (3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of
9    the United States or the Illinois National Guard or the
10    Reserve Officers Training Corps, while in the performance
11    of their official duty.
12        (4) Special agents employed by a railroad or a public
13    utility to perform police functions, and guards of armored
14    car companies, while actually engaged in the performance
15    of the duties of their employment or commuting between
16    their homes and places of employment; and watchmen while
17    actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their
18    employment.
19        (5) Persons licensed as private security contractors,
20    private detectives, or private alarm contractors, or
21    employed by a private security contractor, private
22    detective, or private alarm contractor agency licensed by
23    the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation,
24    if their duties include the carrying of a weapon under the
25    provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm,
26    Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of

 

 

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1    2004, while actually engaged in the performance of the
2    duties of their employment or commuting between their
3    homes and places of employment. A person shall be
4    considered eligible for this exemption if he or she has
5    completed the required 20 hours of training for a private
6    security contractor, private detective, or private alarm
7    contractor, or employee of a licensed private security
8    contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor
9    agency and 28 hours of required firearm training, and has
10    been issued a firearm control card by the Department of
11    Financial and Professional Regulation. Conditions for the
12    renewal of firearm control cards issued under the
13    provisions of this Section shall be the same as for those
14    cards issued under the provisions of the Private
15    Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint
16    Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. The firearm control
17    card shall be carried by the private security contractor,
18    private detective, or private alarm contractor, or
19    employee of the licensed private security contractor,
20    private detective, or private alarm contractor agency at
21    all times when he or she is in possession of a concealable
22    weapon permitted by his or her firearm control card.
23        (6) Any person regularly employed in a commercial or
24    industrial operation as a security guard for the
25    protection of persons employed and private property
26    related to such commercial or industrial operation, while

 

 

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1    actually engaged in the performance of his or her duty or
2    traveling between sites or properties belonging to the
3    employer, and who, as a security guard, is a member of a
4    security force registered with the Department of Financial
5    and Professional Regulation; provided that such security
6    guard has successfully completed a course of study,
7    approved by and supervised by the Department of Financial
8    and Professional Regulation, consisting of not less than
9    48 hours of training that includes the theory of law
10    enforcement, liability for acts, and the handling of
11    weapons. A person shall be considered eligible for this
12    exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours
13    of training for a security officer and 28 hours of
14    required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm
15    control card by the Department of Financial and
16    Professional Regulation. Conditions for the renewal of
17    firearm control cards issued under the provisions of this
18    Section shall be the same as for those cards issued under
19    the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm,
20    Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of
21    2004. The firearm control card shall be carried by the
22    security guard at all times when he or she is in possession
23    of a concealable weapon permitted by his or her firearm
24    control card.
25        (7) Agents and investigators of the Illinois
26    Legislative Investigating Commission authorized by the

 

 

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1    Commission to carry the weapons specified in subsections
2    24-1(a)(3) and 24-1(a)(4), while on duty in the course of
3    any investigation for the Commission.
4        (8) Persons employed by a financial institution as a
5    security guard for the protection of other employees and
6    property related to such financial institution, while
7    actually engaged in the performance of their duties,
8    commuting between their homes and places of employment, or
9    traveling between sites or properties owned or operated by
10    such financial institution, and who, as a security guard,
11    is a member of a security force registered with the
12    Department; provided that any person so employed has
13    successfully completed a course of study, approved by and
14    supervised by the Department of Financial and Professional
15    Regulation, consisting of not less than 48 hours of
16    training which includes theory of law enforcement,
17    liability for acts, and the handling of weapons. A person
18    shall be considered to be eligible for this exemption if
19    he or she has completed the required 20 hours of training
20    for a security officer and 28 hours of required firearm
21    training, and has been issued a firearm control card by
22    the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.
23    Conditions for renewal of firearm control cards issued
24    under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as
25    for those issued under the provisions of the Private
26    Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint

 

 

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1    Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. The firearm control
2    card shall be carried by the security guard at all times
3    when he or she is in possession of a concealable weapon
4    permitted by his or her firearm control card. For purposes
5    of this subsection, "financial institution" means a bank,
6    savings and loan association, credit union, or company
7    providing armored car services.
8        (9) Any person employed by an armored car company to
9    drive an armored car, while actually engaged in the
10    performance of his duties.
11        (10) Persons who have been classified as peace
12    officers pursuant to the Peace Officer Fire Investigation
13    Act.
14        (11) Investigators of the Office of the State's
15    Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor authorized by the board of
16    governors of the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate
17    Prosecutor to carry weapons pursuant to Section 7.06 of
18    the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor's Act.
19        (12) Special investigators appointed by a State's
20    Attorney under Section 3-9005 of the Counties Code.
21        (12.5) Probation officers while in the performance of
22    their duties, or while commuting between their homes,
23    places of employment or specific locations that are part
24    of their assigned duties, with the consent of the chief
25    judge of the circuit for which they are employed, if they
26    have received weapons training according to requirements

 

 

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1    of the Peace Officer and Probation Officer Firearm
2    Training Act.
3        (13) Court security officers while in the performance
4    of their official duties, or while commuting between their
5    homes and places of employment, with the consent of the
6    sheriff.
7        (13.5) A person employed as an armed security guard at
8    a nuclear energy, storage, weapons, or development site or
9    facility regulated by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission
10    who has completed the background screening and training
11    mandated by the rules and regulations of the Nuclear
12    Regulatory Commission.
13        (14) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of weapons
14    to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through
15    (13.5) of this subsection to possess those weapons.
16    (a-5) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) do not apply
17to or affect any person carrying a concealed pistol, revolver,
18or handgun and the person has been issued a currently valid
19license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act at the time of
20the commission of the offense.
21    (a-6) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) do not apply
22to or affect a qualified current or retired law enforcement
23officer or a current or retired deputy, county correctional
24officer, or correctional officer of the Department of
25Corrections qualified under the laws of this State or under
26the federal Law Enforcement Officers Safety Act.

 

 

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1    (b) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section
224-1.6 do not apply to or affect any of the following:
3        (1) Members of any club or organization organized for
4    the purpose of practicing shooting at targets upon
5    established target ranges, whether public or private, and
6    patrons of such ranges, while such members or patrons are
7    using their firearms on those target ranges.
8        (2) Duly authorized military or civil organizations
9    while parading, with the special permission of the
10    Governor.
11        (3) Hunters, trappers, or fishermen while engaged in
12    lawful hunting, trapping, or fishing under the provisions
13    of the Wildlife Code or the Fish and Aquatic Life Code.
14        (4) Transportation of weapons that are broken down in
15    a non-functioning state or are not immediately accessible.
16        (5) Carrying or possessing any pistol, revolver, stun
17    gun or taser or other firearm on the land or in the legal
18    dwelling of another person as an invitee with that
19    person's permission.
20    (c) Subsection 24-1(a)(7) does not apply to or affect any
21of the following:
22        (1) Peace officers while in performance of their
23    official duties.
24        (2) Wardens, superintendents, and keepers of prisons,
25    penitentiaries, jails, and other institutions for the
26    detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense.

 

 

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1        (3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of
2    the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while in
3    the performance of their official duty.
4        (4) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of machine
5    guns to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through
6    (3) of this subsection to possess machine guns, if the
7    machine guns are broken down in a non-functioning state or
8    are not immediately accessible.
9        (5) Persons licensed under federal law to manufacture
10    any weapon from which 8 or more shots or bullets can be
11    discharged by a single function of the firing device, or
12    ammunition for such weapons, and actually engaged in the
13    business of manufacturing such weapons or ammunition, but
14    only with respect to activities which are within the
15    lawful scope of such business, such as the manufacture,
16    transportation, or testing of such weapons or ammunition.
17    This exemption does not authorize the general private
18    possession of any weapon from which 8 or more shots or
19    bullets can be discharged by a single function of the
20    firing device, but only such possession and activities as
21    are within the lawful scope of a licensed manufacturing
22    business described in this paragraph.
23        During transportation, such weapons shall be broken
24    down in a non-functioning state or not immediately
25    accessible.
26        (6) The manufacture, transport, testing, delivery,

 

 

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1    transfer, or sale, and all lawful commercial or
2    experimental activities necessary thereto, of rifles,
3    shotguns, and weapons made from rifles or shotguns, or
4    ammunition for such rifles, shotguns, or weapons, where
5    engaged in by a person operating as a contractor or
6    subcontractor pursuant to a contract or subcontract for
7    the development and supply of such rifles, shotguns,
8    weapons, or ammunition to the United States government or
9    any branch of the Armed Forces of the United States, when
10    such activities are necessary and incident to fulfilling
11    the terms of such contract.
12        The exemption granted under this subdivision (c)(6)
13    shall also apply to any authorized agent of any such
14    contractor or subcontractor who is operating within the
15    scope of his employment, where such activities involving
16    such weapon, weapons, or ammunition are necessary and
17    incident to fulfilling the terms of such contract.
18        (7) A person possessing a rifle with a barrel or
19    barrels less than 16 inches in length if: (A) the person
20    has been issued a Curios and Relics license from the U.S.
21    Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives; or
22    (B) the person is an active member of a bona fide,
23    nationally recognized military re-enacting group and the
24    modification is required and necessary to accurately
25    portray the weapon for historical re-enactment purposes;
26    the re-enactor is in possession of a valid and current

 

 

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1    re-enacting group membership credential; and the overall
2    length of the weapon as modified is not less than 26
3    inches.
4    (d) Subsection 24-1(a)(1) does not apply to the purchase,
5possession or carrying of a black-jack or slung-shot by a
6peace officer.
7    (e) Subsection 24-1(a)(8) does not apply to any owner,
8manager, or authorized employee of any place specified in that
9subsection nor to any law enforcement officer.
10    (f) Subsection 24-1(a)(4) and subsection 24-1(a)(10) and
11Section 24-1.6 do not apply to members of any club or
12organization organized for the purpose of practicing shooting
13at targets upon established target ranges, whether public or
14private, while using their firearms on those target ranges.
15    (g) Subsections 24-1(a)(11) and 24-3.1(a)(6) do not apply
16to:
17        (1) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of
18    the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while in
19    the performance of their official duty.
20        (2) Bonafide collectors of antique or surplus military
21    ordnance.
22        (3) Laboratories having a department of forensic
23    ballistics or specializing in the development of
24    ammunition or explosive ordnance.
25        (4) Commerce, preparation, assembly, or possession of
26    explosive bullets by manufacturers of ammunition licensed

 

 

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1    by the federal government, in connection with the supply
2    of those organizations and persons exempted by subdivision
3    (g)(1) of this Section, or like organizations and persons
4    outside this State, or the transportation of explosive
5    bullets to any organization or person exempted in this
6    Section by a common carrier or by a vehicle owned or leased
7    by an exempted manufacturer.
8    (g-5) Subsection 24-1(a)(6) does not apply to or affect
9persons licensed under federal law to manufacture any device
10or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use
11in silencing the report of any firearm, firearms, or
12ammunition for those firearms equipped with those devices, and
13actually engaged in the business of manufacturing those
14devices, firearms, or ammunition, but only with respect to
15activities that are within the lawful scope of that business,
16such as the manufacture, transportation, or testing of those
17devices, firearms, or ammunition. This exemption does not
18authorize the general private possession of any device or
19attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in
20silencing the report of any firearm, but only such possession
21and activities as are within the lawful scope of a licensed
22manufacturing business described in this subsection (g-5).
23During transportation, these devices shall be detached from
24any weapon or not immediately accessible.
25    (g-6) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section
2624-1.6 do not apply to or affect any parole agent or parole

 

 

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1supervisor who meets the qualifications and conditions
2prescribed in Section 3-14-1.5 of the Unified Code of
3Corrections.
4    (g-7) Subsection 24-1(a)(6) does not apply to a peace
5officer while serving as a member of a tactical response team
6or special operations team. A peace officer may not personally
7own or apply for ownership of a device or attachment of any
8kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the
9report of any firearm. These devices shall be owned and
10maintained by lawfully recognized units of government whose
11duties include the investigation of criminal acts.
12    (g-10) (Blank).
13    (h) An information or indictment based upon a violation of
14any subsection of this Article need not negate any exemptions
15contained in this Article. The defendant shall have the burden
16of proving such an exemption.
17    (i) Nothing in this Article shall prohibit, apply to, or
18affect the transportation, carrying, or possession of any
19pistol or revolver, stun gun, taser, or other firearm
20consigned to a common carrier operating under license of the
21State of Illinois or the federal government, where such
22transportation, carrying, or possession is incident to the
23lawful transportation in which such common carrier is engaged;
24and nothing in this Article shall prohibit, apply to, or
25affect the transportation, carrying, or possession of any
26pistol, revolver, stun gun, taser, or other firearm, not the

 

 

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1subject of and regulated by subsection 24-1(a)(7) or
2subsection 24-2(c) of this Article, which is unloaded and
3enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or
4other container, by a person eligible under State and federal
5law to possess a firearm the possessor of a valid Firearm
6Owners Identification Card.
7(Source: P.A. 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 104-417, eff. 8-15-25.)
 
8    (720 ILCS 5/24-3)  (from Ch. 38, par. 24-3)
9    Sec. 24-3. Unlawful sale or delivery of firearms.
10    (A) A person commits the offense of unlawful sale or
11delivery of firearms when he or she knowingly does any of the
12following:
13        (a) Sells or gives any firearm of a size which may be
14    concealed upon the person to any person under 18 years of
15    age.
16        (b) Sells or gives any firearm to a person under 21
17    years of age who has been convicted of a misdemeanor other
18    than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent.
19        (c) Sells or gives any firearm to any narcotic addict.
20        (d) Sells or gives any firearm to any person who has
21    been convicted of a felony under the laws of this or any
22    other jurisdiction.
23        (e) Sells or gives any firearm to any person who has
24    been a patient in a mental institution within the past 5
25    years. In this subsection (e):

 

 

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1            "Mental institution" means any hospital,
2        institution, clinic, evaluation facility, mental
3        health center, or part thereof, which is used
4        primarily for the care or treatment of persons with
5        mental illness.
6            "Patient in a mental institution" means the person
7        was admitted, either voluntarily or involuntarily, to
8        a mental institution for mental health treatment,
9        unless the treatment was voluntary and solely for an
10        alcohol abuse disorder and no other secondary
11        substance abuse disorder or mental illness.
12        (f) Sells or gives any firearms to any person who is a
13    person with an intellectual disability.
14        (g) Delivers any firearm, incidental to a sale,
15    without withholding delivery of the firearm for at least
16    72 hours after application for its purchase has been made,
17    or delivers a stun gun or taser, incidental to a sale,
18    without withholding delivery of the stun gun or taser for
19    at least 24 hours after application for its purchase has
20    been made. However, this paragraph (g) does not apply to:
21    (1) the sale of a firearm to a law enforcement officer if
22    the seller of the firearm knows that the person to whom he
23    or she is selling the firearm is a law enforcement officer
24    or the sale of a firearm to a person who desires to
25    purchase a firearm for use in promoting the public
26    interest incident to his or her employment as a bank

 

 

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1    guard, armed truck guard, or other similar employment; (2)
2    a mail order sale of a firearm from a federally licensed
3    firearms dealer to a nonresident of Illinois under which
4    the firearm is mailed to a federally licensed firearms
5    dealer outside the boundaries of Illinois; (3) (blank);
6    (4) the sale of a firearm to a dealer licensed as a federal
7    firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun
8    Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923); or (5) the transfer or
9    sale of any rifle, shotgun, or other long gun to a resident
10    registered competitor or attendee or non-resident
11    registered competitor or attendee by any dealer licensed
12    as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the
13    federal Gun Control Act of 1968 at competitive shooting
14    events held at the World Shooting Complex sanctioned by a
15    national governing body. For purposes of transfers or
16    sales under subparagraph (5) of this paragraph (g), the
17    Department of Natural Resources shall give notice to the
18    Illinois State Police at least 30 calendar days prior to
19    any competitive shooting events at the World Shooting
20    Complex sanctioned by a national governing body. The
21    notification shall be made on a form prescribed by the
22    Illinois State Police. The sanctioning body shall provide
23    a list of all registered competitors and attendees at
24    least 24 hours before the events to the Illinois State
25    Police. Any changes to the list of registered competitors
26    and attendees shall be forwarded to the Illinois State

 

 

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1    Police as soon as practicable. The Illinois State Police
2    must destroy the list of registered competitors and
3    attendees no later than 30 days after the date of the
4    event. Nothing in this paragraph (g) relieves a federally
5    licensed firearm dealer from the requirements of
6    conducting a NICS background check through the Illinois
7    Point of Contact under 18 U.S.C. 922(t). For purposes of
8    this paragraph (g), "application" means when the buyer and
9    seller reach an agreement to purchase a firearm. For
10    purposes of this paragraph (g), "national governing body"
11    means a group of persons who adopt rules and formulate
12    policy on behalf of a national firearm sporting
13    organization.
14        (h) While holding any license as a dealer, importer,
15    manufacturer or pawnbroker under the federal Gun Control
16    Act of 1968, manufactures, sells or delivers to any
17    unlicensed person a handgun having a barrel, slide, frame
18    or receiver which is a die casting of zinc alloy or any
19    other nonhomogeneous metal which will melt or deform at a
20    temperature of less than 800 degrees Fahrenheit. For
21    purposes of this paragraph, (1) "firearm" has the meaning
22    provided in Section 2-7.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 is
23    defined as in the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act;
24    and (2) "handgun" is defined as a firearm designed to be
25    held and fired by the use of a single hand, and includes a
26    combination of parts from which such a firearm can be

 

 

SB3171- 295 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    assembled.
2        (i) Sells or gives a firearm of any size to any person
3    under 18 years of age who is not eligible under State or
4    federal law to possess a firearm does not possess a valid
5    Firearm Owner's Identification Card.
6        (j) Sells or gives a firearm while engaged in the
7    business of selling firearms at wholesale or retail
8    without being licensed as a federal firearms dealer under
9    Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18
10    U.S.C. 923). In this paragraph (j):
11        A person "engaged in the business" means a person who
12    devotes time, attention, and labor to engaging in the
13    activity as a regular course of trade or business with the
14    principal objective of livelihood and profit, but does not
15    include a person who makes occasional repairs of firearms
16    or who occasionally fits special barrels, stocks, or
17    trigger mechanisms to firearms.
18        "With the principal objective of livelihood and
19    profit" means that the intent underlying the sale or
20    disposition of firearms is predominantly one of obtaining
21    livelihood and pecuniary gain, as opposed to other
22    intents, such as improving or liquidating a personal
23    firearms collection; however, proof of profit shall not be
24    required as to a person who engages in the regular and
25    repetitive purchase and disposition of firearms for
26    criminal purposes or terrorism.

 

 

SB3171- 296 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        (k) (Blank). Sells or transfers ownership of a firearm
2    to a person who does not display to the seller or
3    transferor of the firearm either: (1) a currently valid
4    Firearm Owner's Identification Card that has previously
5    been issued in the transferee's name by the Illinois State
6    Police under the provisions of the Firearm Owners
7    Identification Card Act; or (2) a currently valid license
8    to carry a concealed firearm that has previously been
9    issued in the transferee's name by the Illinois State
10    Police under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act. This
11    paragraph (k) does not apply to the transfer of a firearm
12    to a person who is exempt from the requirement of
13    possessing a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under
14    Section 2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.
15    For the purposes of this Section, a currently valid
16    Firearm Owner's Identification Card or license to carry a
17    concealed firearm means receipt of an approval number
18    issued in accordance with subsection (a-10) of Section 3
19    or Section 3.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card
20    Act.
21            (1) (Blank). In addition to the other requirements
22        of this paragraph (k), all persons who are not
23        federally licensed firearms dealers must also have
24        complied with subsection (a-10) of Section 3 of the
25        Firearm Owners Identification Card Act by determining
26        the validity of a purchaser's Firearm Owner's

 

 

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1        Identification Card.
2            (2) (Blank). All sellers or transferors who have
3        complied with the requirements of subparagraph (1) of
4        this paragraph (k) shall not be liable for damages in
5        any civil action arising from the use or misuse by the
6        transferee of the firearm transferred, except for
7        willful or wanton misconduct on the part of the seller
8        or transferor.    
9        (l) Not being entitled to the possession of a firearm,
10    delivers the firearm, knowing it to have been stolen or
11    converted. It may be inferred that a person who possesses
12    a firearm with knowledge that its serial number has been
13    removed or altered has knowledge that the firearm is
14    stolen or converted.
15    (B) Paragraph (h) of subsection (A) does not include
16firearms sold within 6 months after enactment of Public Act
1778-355 (approved August 21, 1973, effective October 1, 1973),
18nor is any firearm legally owned or possessed by any citizen or
19purchased by any citizen within 6 months after the enactment
20of Public Act 78-355 subject to confiscation or seizure under
21the provisions of that Public Act. Nothing in Public Act
2278-355 shall be construed to prohibit the gift or trade of any
23firearm if that firearm was legally held or acquired within 6
24months after the enactment of that Public Act.
25    (C) Sentence.
26        (1) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery

 

 

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1    of firearms in violation of paragraph (c), (e), (f), (g),
2    or (h) of subsection (A) commits a Class 4 felony.
3        (2) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery
4    of firearms in violation of paragraph (b) or (i) of
5    subsection (A) commits a Class 3 felony.
6        (3) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery
7    of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) of subsection
8    (A) commits a Class 2 felony.
9        (4) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery
10    of firearms in violation of paragraph (a), (b), or (i) of
11    subsection (A) in any school, on the real property
12    comprising a school, within 1,000 feet of the real
13    property comprising a school, at a school related
14    activity, or on or within 1,000 feet of any conveyance
15    owned, leased, or contracted by a school or school
16    district to transport students to or from school or a
17    school related activity, regardless of the time of day or
18    time of year at which the offense was committed, commits a
19    Class 1 felony. Any person convicted of a second or
20    subsequent violation of unlawful sale or delivery of
21    firearms in violation of paragraph (a), (b), or (i) of
22    subsection (A) in any school, on the real property
23    comprising a school, within 1,000 feet of the real
24    property comprising a school, at a school related
25    activity, or on or within 1,000 feet of any conveyance
26    owned, leased, or contracted by a school or school

 

 

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1    district to transport students to or from school or a
2    school related activity, regardless of the time of day or
3    time of year at which the offense was committed, commits a
4    Class 1 felony for which the sentence shall be a term of
5    imprisonment of no less than 5 years and no more than 15
6    years.
7        (5) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery
8    of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) or (i) of
9    subsection (A) in residential property owned, operated, or
10    managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public
11    housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income
12    development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on
13    residential property owned, operated, or managed by a
14    public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency
15    as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development,
16    on the real property comprising any public park, on the
17    real property comprising any courthouse, or on any public
18    way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any
19    public park, courthouse, or residential property owned,
20    operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased
21    by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or
22    mixed-income development commits a Class 2 felony.
23        (6) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery
24    of firearms in violation of paragraph (j) of subsection
25    (A) commits a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent
26    violation is a Class 4 felony.

 

 

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1        (7) (Blank). Any person convicted of unlawful sale or
2    delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (k) of
3    subsection (A) commits a Class 4 felony, except that a
4    violation of subparagraph (1) of paragraph (k) of
5    subsection (A) shall not be punishable as a crime or petty
6    offense. A third or subsequent conviction for a violation
7    of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) is a Class 1 felony.    
8        (8) A person 18 years of age or older convicted of
9    unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of
10    paragraph (a) or (i) of subsection (A), when the firearm
11    that was sold or given to another person under 18 years of
12    age was used in the commission of or attempt to commit a
13    forcible felony, shall be fined or imprisoned, or both,
14    not to exceed the maximum provided for the most serious
15    forcible felony so committed or attempted by the person
16    under 18 years of age who was sold or given the firearm.
17        (9) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery
18    of firearms in violation of paragraph (d) of subsection
19    (A) commits a Class 3 felony.
20        (10) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery
21    of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection
22    (A) commits a Class 2 felony if the delivery is of one
23    firearm. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery
24    of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection
25    (A) commits a Class 1 felony if the delivery is of not less
26    than 2 and not more than 5 firearms at the same time or

 

 

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1    within a one-year period. Any person convicted of unlawful
2    sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l)
3    of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or
4    she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not
5    less than 6 years and not more than 30 years if the
6    delivery is of not less than 6 and not more than 10
7    firearms at the same time or within a 2-year period. Any
8    person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms
9    in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a
10    Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a
11    term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more
12    than 40 years if the delivery is of not less than 11 and
13    not more than 20 firearms at the same time or within a
14    3-year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or
15    delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of
16    subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she
17    shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less
18    than 6 years and not more than 50 years if the delivery is
19    of not less than 21 and not more than 30 firearms at the
20    same time or within a 4-year period. Any person convicted
21    of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of
22    paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony
23    for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of
24    imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 60
25    years if the delivery is of 31 or more firearms at the same
26    time or within a 5-year period.

 

 

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1    (D) For purposes of this Section:
2    "School" means a public or private elementary or secondary
3school, community college, college, or university.
4    "School related activity" means any sporting, social,
5academic, or other activity for which students' attendance or
6participation is sponsored, organized, or funded in whole or
7in part by a school or school district.
8    (E) (Blank). A prosecution for a violation of paragraph
9(k) of subsection (A) of this Section may be commenced within 6
10years after the commission of the offense. A prosecution for a
11violation of this Section other than paragraph (g) of
12subsection (A) of this Section may be commenced within 5 years
13after the commission of the offense defined in the particular
14paragraph.    
15(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21;
16102-813, eff. 5-13-22.)
 
17    (720 ILCS 5/24-3.1)  (from Ch. 38, par. 24-3.1)
18    Sec. 24-3.1. Unlawful possession of firearms and firearm
19ammunition.
20    (a) A person commits the offense of unlawful possession of
21firearms or firearm ammunition when:    
22        (1) He is under 18 years of age and has in his
23    possession any firearm of a size which may be concealed
24    upon the person; or    
25        (2) He is under 21 years of age, has been convicted of

 

 

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1    a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged
2    delinquent and has any firearms or firearm ammunition in
3    his possession; or    
4        (3) He is a narcotic addict and has any firearms or
5    firearm ammunition in his possession; or    
6        (4) He has been a patient in a mental institution
7    within the past 5 years and has any firearms or firearm
8    ammunition in his possession. For purposes of this
9    paragraph (4):
10            "Mental institution" means any hospital,
11        institution, clinic, evaluation facility, mental
12        health center, or part thereof, which is used
13        primarily for the care or treatment of persons with
14        mental illness.
15            "Patient in a mental institution" means the person
16        was admitted, either voluntarily or involuntarily, to
17        a mental institution for mental health treatment,
18        unless the treatment was voluntary and solely for an
19        alcohol abuse disorder and no other secondary
20        substance abuse disorder or mental illness; or    
21        (5) He is a person with an intellectual disability and
22    has any firearms or firearm ammunition in his possession;
23    or    
24        (6) He has in his possession any explosive bullet.
25    For purposes of this paragraph "explosive bullet" means
26the projectile portion of an ammunition cartridge which

 

 

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1contains or carries an explosive charge which will explode
2upon contact with the flesh of a human or an animal.
3"Cartridge" means a tubular metal case having a projectile
4affixed at the front thereof and a cap or primer at the rear
5end thereof, with the propellant contained in such tube
6between the projectile and the cap.
7    (a-5) A person prohibited from possessing a firearm under
8this Section may petition the Director of the Illinois State
9Police for a hearing and relief from the prohibition, unless
10the prohibition was based upon a forcible felony, stalking,
11aggravated stalking, domestic battery, any violation of the
12Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine
13Control and Community Protection Act, or the Cannabis Control
14Act that is classified as a Class 2 or greater felony, any
15felony violation of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or
16the Criminal Code of 2012, or any adjudication as a delinquent
17minor for the commission of an offense that if committed by an
18adult would be a felony, in which case the person may petition
19the circuit court in writing in the county of his or her
20residence for a hearing and relief from the prohibition. The
21Director or court may grant the relief if it is established by
22the petitioner to the court's or Director's satisfaction that:    
23        (1) when in the circuit court, the State's Attorney
24    has been served with a written copy of the petition at
25    least 30 days before any hearing in the circuit court and
26    at the hearing the State's Attorney was afforded an

 

 

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1    opportunity to present evidence and object to the
2    petition;
3        (2) the petitioner has not been convicted of a
4    forcible felony under the laws of this State or any other
5    jurisdiction within 20 years of the filing of the
6    petition, or at least 20 years have passed since the end of
7    any period of imprisonment imposed in relation to that
8    conviction;
9        (3) the circumstances regarding a criminal conviction,
10    where applicable, the petitioner's criminal history and
11    his reputation are such that the petitioner will not be
12    likely to act in a manner dangerous to public safety;
13        (4) granting relief would not be contrary to the
14    public interest; and
15        (5) granting relief would not be contrary to federal
16    law.    
17    (b) Sentence.
18    Unlawful possession of firearms, other than handguns, and
19firearm ammunition is a Class A misdemeanor. Unlawful
20possession of handguns is a Class 4 felony. The possession of
21each firearm or firearm ammunition in violation of this
22Section constitutes a single and separate violation.
23    (c) Nothing in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this
24Section prohibits a person under 18 years of age from
25participating in any lawful recreational activity with a
26firearm such as, but not limited to, practice shooting at

 

 

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1targets upon established public or private target ranges or
2hunting, trapping, or fishing in accordance with the Wildlife
3Code or the Fish and Aquatic Life Code.
4(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15.)
 
5    (720 ILCS 5/24-3.2)  (from Ch. 38, par. 24-3.2)
6    Sec. 24-3.2. Unlawful discharge of firearm projectiles.
7    (a) A person commits the offense of unlawful discharge of
8firearm projectiles when he or she knowingly or recklessly
9uses an armor piercing bullet, dragon's breath shotgun shell,
10bolo shell, or flechette shell in violation of this Section.
11    For purposes of this Section:
12    "Armor piercing bullet" means any handgun bullet or
13handgun ammunition with projectiles or projectile cores
14constructed entirely (excluding the presence of traces of
15other substances) from tungsten alloys, steel, iron, brass,
16bronze, beryllium copper or depleted uranium, or fully
17jacketed bullets larger than 22 caliber whose jacket has a
18weight of more than 25% of the total weight of the projectile,
19and excluding those handgun projectiles whose cores are
20composed of soft materials such as lead or lead alloys, zinc or
21zinc alloys, frangible projectiles designed primarily for
22sporting purposes, and any other projectiles or projectile
23cores that the U. S. Secretary of the Treasury finds to be
24primarily intended to be used for sporting purposes or
25industrial purposes or that otherwise does not constitute

 

 

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1"armor piercing ammunition" as that term is defined by federal
2law.
3    "Dragon's breath shotgun shell" means any shotgun shell
4that contains exothermic pyrophoric mesh metal as the
5projectile and is designed for the purpose of throwing or
6spewing a flame or fireball to simulate a flame-thrower.
7    "Bolo shell" means any shell that can be fired in a firearm
8and expels as projectiles 2 or more metal balls connected by
9solid metal wire.
10    "Flechette shell" means any shell that can be fired in a
11firearm and expels 2 or more pieces of fin-stabilized solid
12metal wire or 2 or more solid dart-type projectiles.
13    (b) A person commits a Class X felony when he or she,
14knowing that a firearm, as defined in Section 1.1 of the
15Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, is loaded with an
16armor piercing bullet, dragon's breath shotgun shell, bolo
17shell, or flechette shell, intentionally or recklessly
18discharges such firearm and such bullet or shell strikes any
19other person.
20    (c) Any person who possesses, concealed on or about his or
21her person, an armor piercing bullet, dragon's breath shotgun
22shell, bolo shell, or flechette shell and a firearm suitable
23for the discharge thereof is guilty of a Class 2 felony.
24    (d) This Section does not apply to or affect any of the
25following:    
26        (1) Peace officers;    

 

 

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1        (2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons,
2    penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the
3    detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense;    
4        (3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of
5    the United States or the Illinois National Guard while in
6    the performance of their official duties;    
7        (4) Federal officials required to carry firearms,
8    while engaged in the performance of their official duties;    
9        (5) United States Marshals, while engaged in the
10    performance of their official duties.
11(Source: P.A. 92-423, eff. 1-1-02.)
 
12    (720 ILCS 5/24-3.4)  (from Ch. 38, par. 24-3.4)
13    Sec. 24-3.4. Unlawful sale of firearms by liquor licensee.
14    (a) It shall be unlawful for any person who holds a license
15to sell at retail any alcoholic liquor issued by the Illinois
16Liquor Control Commission or local liquor control commissioner
17under the Liquor Control Act of 1934 or an agent or employee of
18the licensee to sell or deliver to any other person a firearm
19in or on the real property of the establishment where the
20licensee is licensed to sell alcoholic liquors unless the sale
21or delivery of the firearm is otherwise lawful under this
22Article and under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.
23    (b) Sentence. A violation of subsection (a) of this
24Section is a Class 4 felony.
25(Source: P.A. 87-591.)
 

 

 

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1    (720 ILCS 5/24-3.5)
2    Sec. 24-3.5. Unlawful purchase of a firearm.
3    (a) For purposes of this Section, "firearms transaction
4record form" means a form:    
5        (1) executed by a transferee of a firearm stating: (i)
6    the transferee's name and address (including county or
7    similar political subdivision); (ii) whether the
8    transferee is a citizen of the United States; (iii) the
9    transferee's State of residence; and (iv) the date and
10    place of birth, height, weight, and race of the
11    transferee; and    
12        (2) on which the transferee certifies that he or she
13    is not prohibited by federal law from transporting or
14    shipping a firearm in interstate or foreign commerce or
15    receiving a firearm that has been shipped or transported
16    in interstate or foreign commerce or possessing a firearm
17    in or affecting commerce.
18    (b) A person commits the offense of unlawful purchase of a
19firearm who knowingly purchases or attempts to purchase a
20firearm with the intent to deliver that firearm to another
21person who is prohibited by federal or State law from
22possessing a firearm.
23    (c) A person commits the offense of unlawful purchase of a
24firearm when he or she, in purchasing or attempting to
25purchase a firearm, intentionally provides false or misleading

 

 

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1information on a United States Department of the Treasury,
2Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms firearms transaction
3record form.
4    (d) Exemption. It is not a violation of subsection (b) of
5this Section for a person to make a gift or loan of a firearm
6to a person who is not prohibited by federal or State law from
7possessing a firearm if the transfer of the firearm is made in
8accordance with Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification
9Card Act.
10    (e) Sentence.    
11        (1) A person who commits the offense of unlawful
12    purchase of a firearm:    
13            (A) is guilty of a Class 2 felony for purchasing or
14        attempting to purchase one firearm;    
15            (B) is guilty of a Class 1 felony for purchasing or
16        attempting to purchase not less than 2 firearms and
17        not more than 5 firearms at the same time or within a
18        one year period;    
19            (C) is guilty of a Class X felony for which the
20        offender shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment
21        of not less than 9 years and not more than 40 years for
22        purchasing or attempting to purchase not less than 6
23        firearms at the same time or within a 2 year period.    
24        (2) In addition to any other penalty that may be
25    imposed for a violation of this Section, the court may
26    sentence a person convicted of a violation of subsection

 

 

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1    (c) of this Section to a fine not to exceed $250,000 for
2    each violation.
3    (f) A prosecution for unlawful purchase of a firearm may
4be commenced within 6 years after the commission of the
5offense.
6(Source: P.A. 95-882, eff. 1-1-09.)
 
7    (720 ILCS 5/24-3B)
8    Sec. 24-3B. Firearms trafficking.
9    (a) A person commits firearms trafficking when he or she
10is prohibited under federal or State law from possessing a
11firearm has not been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's
12Identification Card and knowingly:
13        (1) brings, or causes to be brought, into this State,
14    a firearm or firearm ammunition for the purpose of sale,
15    delivery, or transfer to any other person or with the
16    intent to sell, deliver, or transfer the firearm or
17    firearm ammunition to any other person;
18        (2) brings, or causes to be brought, into this State,
19    a firearm and firearm ammunition for the purpose of sale,
20    delivery, or transfer to any other person or with the
21    intent to sell, deliver, or transfer the firearm and
22    firearm ammunition to any other person; or
23        (3) brings, or causes to be brought, into this State,
24    in a vehicle on an expressway in this State, more than one
25    firearm prohibited from possession by Section 24-1.9, per

 

 

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1    occupants of the vehicle.
2    (a-5) (Blank). This Section does not apply to:    
3        (1) a person exempt under Section 2 of the Firearm
4    Owners Identification Card Act from the requirement of
5    having possession of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card
6    previously issued in his or her name by the Illinois State
7    Police in order to acquire or possess a firearm or firearm
8    ammunition;
9        (2) a common carrier under subsection (i) of Section
10    24-2 of this Code; or
11        (3) a non-resident who may lawfully possess a firearm
12    in his or her resident state.
13    (b) Sentence.
14        (1) Firearms trafficking is a Class 1 felony for which
15    the person, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall
16    be sentenced to not less than 4 years and not more than 20
17    years.
18        (2) Firearms trafficking by a person who has been
19    previously convicted of firearms trafficking, gunrunning,
20    or a felony offense for the unlawful sale, delivery, or
21    transfer of a firearm or firearm ammunition in this State
22    or another jurisdiction is a Class X felony.
23(Source: P.A. 104-31, eff. 1-1-26.)
 
24    (720 ILCS 5/24-4.1)
25    Sec. 24-4.1. Report of lost or stolen firearms.

 

 

SB3171- 313 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    (a) If a person who possesses a valid Firearm Owner's
2Identification Card and who possesses or acquires a firearm
3thereafter loses the firearm, or if the firearm is stolen from
4the person, the person must report the loss or theft of any
5such firearm to the local law enforcement agency within 48
6hours after obtaining knowledge of the loss or theft. The
7report shall include:
8        (1) the date the firearm was lost or stolen;
9        (2) the exact location where the firearm was lost or
10    stolen or, if the exact location is not known, the last
11    known location of the firearm;
12        (3) the caliber, make, model, and serial number of the
13    firearm;
14        (4) a description of the circumstances under which the
15    firearm was lost or stolen; and
16        (5) (blank) the Firearm Owner's Identification Card
17    number of the person making the report, if applicable.
18    (b) A law enforcement agency having jurisdiction shall
19take a written report and shall, as soon as practical, and in
20no event later than 48 hours after receiving the report, enter
21the information and the firearm's serial number as stolen into
22the Law Enforcement Agencies Data System (LEADS).
23    (c) A person shall not be in violation of this Section if:
24        (1) the failure to report is due to an act of God, act
25    of war, or inability of a law enforcement agency to
26    receive the report;

 

 

SB3171- 314 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        (2) the person is hospitalized, in a coma, or is
2    otherwise seriously physically or mentally impaired as to
3    prevent the person from reporting; or
4        (3) the person's designee makes a report if the person
5    is unable to make the report.
6    (d) Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty
7of a petty offense for a first violation. A second or
8subsequent violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.
9    (e) A prosecution for an offense under this Section may be
10commenced within 3 years after the discovery by law
11enforcement or prosecution of the failure to report the theft
12or loss of a firearm as required under subsection (a).
13(Source: P.A. 104-31, eff. 1-1-26.)
 
14    (720 ILCS 5/24-4.5 new)
15    Sec. 24-4.5. Dial up system.
16    (a) The Illinois State Police shall provide a dial up
17telephone system or utilize other existing technology which
18shall be used by any federally licensed firearm dealer, gun
19show promoter, or gun show vendor who is to transfer a firearm,
20stun gun, or taser under the provisions of this Code. The
21Illinois State Police may utilize existing technology which
22allows the caller to be charged a fee not to exceed $2. Fees
23collected by the Illinois State Police shall be deposited in
24the State Police Services Fund and used to provide the
25service.

 

 

SB3171- 315 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    (b) Upon receiving a request from a federally licensed
2firearm dealer, gun show promoter, or gun show vendor, the
3Illinois State Police shall immediately approve, or within the
4time period established by Section 24-3 of this Code regarding
5the delivery of firearms, stun guns, and tasers notify the
6inquiring dealer, gun show promoter, or gun show vendor of any
7objection that would disqualify the transferee from acquiring
8or possessing a firearm, stun gun, or taser. In conducting the
9inquiry, the Illinois State Police shall initiate and complete
10an automated search of its criminal history record information
11files and those of the Federal Bureau of Investigation,
12including the National Instant Criminal Background Check
13System, and of the files of the Department of Human Services
14relating to mental health and developmental disabilities to
15obtain any felony conviction or patient hospitalization
16information which would disqualify a person from obtaining a
17firearm.
18    (c) If receipt of a firearm would not violate Section 24-3
19of this Code or federal law, the Illinois State Police shall:    
20        (1) assign a unique identification number to the
21    transfer; and
22        (2) provide the licensee, gun show promoter, or gun
23    show vendor with the number.
24    (d) Approvals issued by the Illinois State Police for the
25purchase of a firearm are valid for 30 days from the date of
26issue.    

 

 

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1    (e)(1) The Illinois State Police must act as the Illinois
2Point of Contact for the National Instant Criminal Background
3Check System.
4    (2) The Illinois State Police and the Department of Human
5Services shall, in accordance with State and federal law
6regarding confidentiality, enter into a memorandum of
7understanding with the Federal Bureau of Investigation for the
8purpose of implementing the National Instant Criminal
9Background Check System in the State. The Department of State
10Police shall report the name, date of birth, and physical
11description of any person prohibited from possessing a firearm
12under this Code or 18 U.S.C. 922(g) and (n) to the National
13Instant Criminal Background Check System Index, Denied Persons
14Files.
15    (f) The Illinois State Police shall adopt rules not
16inconsistent with this Section to implement this system.    
 
17    (720 ILCS 5/24-5.1)
18    Sec. 24-5.1. Serialization of unfinished frames or
19receivers; prohibition on unserialized firearms; exceptions;
20penalties.
21    (a) In this Section:
22    "Bona fide supplier" means an established business entity
23engaged in the development and sale of firearms parts to one or
24more federal firearms manufacturers or federal firearms
25importers.

 

 

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1    "Federal firearms dealer" means a licensed manufacturer
2pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 921(a)(11).
3    "Federal firearms importer" means a licensed importer
4pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 921(a)(9).
5    "Federal firearms manufacturer" means a licensed
6manufacturer pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 921(a)(10).
7    "Frame or receiver" means a part of a firearm that, when
8the complete weapon is assembled, is visible from the exterior
9and provides housing or a structure designed to hold or
10integrate one or more fire control components, even if pins or
11other attachments are required to connect those components to
12the housing or structure. For models of firearms in which
13multiple parts provide such housing or structure, the part or
14parts that the Director of the federal Bureau of Alcohol,
15Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives has determined are a frame or
16receiver constitute the frame or receiver. For purposes of
17this definition, "fire control component" means a component
18necessary for the firearm to initiate, complete, or continue
19the firing sequence, including any of the following: hammer,
20bolt, bolt carrier, breechblock, cylinder, trigger mechanism,
21firing pin, striker, or slide rails.
22    "Security exemplar" means an object to be fabricated at
23the direction of the United States Attorney General that is
24(1) constructed of 3.7 ounces of material type 17-4 PH
25stainless steel in a shape resembling a handgun and (2)
26suitable for testing and calibrating metal detectors.

 

 

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1    "Three-dimensional printer" means a computer or
2computer-drive machine capable of producing a
3three-dimensional object from a digital model.
4    "Undetectable firearm" means (1) a firearm constructed
5entirely of non-metal substances; (2) a firearm that, after
6removal of all parts but the major components of the firearm,
7is not detectable by walk-through metal detectors calibrated
8and operated to detect the security exemplar; or (3) a firearm
9that includes a major component of a firearm, which, if
10subject to the types of detection devices commonly used at
11airports for security screening, would not generate an image
12that accurately depicts the shape of the component.
13"Undetectable firearm" does not include a firearm subject to
14the provisions of 18 U.S.C. 922(p)(3) through (6).
15    "Unfinished frame or receiver" means any forging, casting,
16printing, extrusion, machined body, or similar article that:
17        (1) has reached a stage in manufacture where it may
18    readily be completed, assembled, or converted to be a
19    functional firearm; or
20        (2) is marketed or sold to the public to become or be
21    used as the frame or receiver of a functional firearm once
22    completed, assembled, or converted.
23    "Unserialized" means lacking a serial number imprinted by:
24        (1) a federal firearms manufacturer, federal firearms
25    importer, federal firearms dealer, or other federal
26    licensee authorized to provide marking services, pursuant

 

 

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1    to a requirement under federal law; or
2        (2) a federal firearms dealer or other federal
3    licensee authorized to provide marking services pursuant
4    to subsection (f) of this Section.
5    (b) It is unlawful for any person to knowingly sell, offer
6to sell, or transfer an unserialized unfinished frame or
7receiver or unserialized firearm, including those produced
8using a three-dimensional printer, unless the party purchasing
9or receiving the unfinished frame or receiver or unserialized
10firearm is a federal firearms importer, federal firearms
11manufacturer, or federal firearms dealer.
12    (c) Beginning 180 days after May 18, 2022 (the effective
13date of Public Act 102-889), it is unlawful for any person to
14knowingly possess, transport, or receive an unfinished frame
15or receiver, unless:
16        (1) the party possessing or receiving the unfinished
17    frame or receiver is a federal firearms importer or
18    federal firearms manufacturer;
19        (2) the unfinished frame or receiver is possessed or
20    transported by a person for transfer to a federal firearms
21    importer or federal firearms manufacturer; or
22        (3) the unfinished frame or receiver has been
23    imprinted with a serial number issued by a federal
24    firearms importer or federal firearms manufacturer in
25    compliance with subsection (f) of this Section.
26    (d) Beginning 180 days after May 18, 2022 (the effective

 

 

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1date of Public Act 102-889), unless the party receiving the
2firearm is a federal firearms importer or federal firearms
3manufacturer, it is unlawful for any person to knowingly
4possess, purchase, transport, or receive a firearm that is not
5imprinted with a serial number by (1) a federal firearms
6importer or federal firearms manufacturer in compliance with
7all federal laws and regulations regulating the manufacture
8and import of firearms or (2) a federal firearms manufacturer,
9federal firearms dealer, or other federal licensee authorized
10to provide marking services in compliance with the
11unserialized firearm serialization process under subsection
12(f) of this Section.
13    (e) Any firearm or unfinished frame or receiver
14manufactured using a three-dimensional printer must also be
15serialized in accordance with the requirements of subsection
16(f) within 30 days after May 18, 2022 (the effective date of
17Public Act 102-889), or prior to reaching a stage of
18manufacture where it may be readily completed, assembled, or
19converted to be a functional firearm.
20    (f) Unserialized unfinished frames or receivers and
21unserialized firearms serialized pursuant to this Section
22shall be serialized in compliance with all of the following:
23        (1) An unserialized unfinished frame or receiver and
24    unserialized firearm shall be serialized by a federally
25    licensed firearms dealer or other federal licensee
26    authorized to provide marking services with the licensee's

 

 

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1    abbreviated federal firearms license number as a prefix
2    (which is the first 3 and last 5 digits) followed by a
3    hyphen, and then followed by a number as a suffix, such as
4    12345678-(number). The serial number or numbers must be
5    placed in a manner that accords with the requirements
6    under federal law for affixing serial numbers to firearms,
7    including the requirements that the serial number or
8    numbers be at the minimum size and depth, and not
9    susceptible to being readily obliterated, altered, or
10    removed, and the licensee must retain records that accord
11    with the requirements under federal law in the case of the
12    sale of a firearm. The imprinting of any serial number
13    upon an undetectable firearm must be done on a steel
14    plaque in compliance with 18 U.S.C. 922(p).
15        (2) Every federally licensed firearms dealer or other
16    federal licensee that engraves, casts, stamps, or
17    otherwise conspicuously and permanently places a unique
18    serial number pursuant to this Section shall maintain a
19    record of such indefinitely. Licensees subject to the
20    Firearm Dealer License Certification Act shall make all
21    records accessible for inspection upon the request of the
22    Illinois State Police or a law enforcement agency in
23    accordance with Section 5-35 of the Firearm Dealer License
24    Certification Act.
25        (3) Every federally licensed firearms dealer or other
26    federal licensee that engraves, casts, stamps, or

 

 

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1    otherwise conspicuously and permanently places a unique
2    serial number pursuant to this Section shall record it at
3    the time of every transaction involving the transfer of a
4    firearm, rifle, shotgun, finished frame or receiver, or
5    unfinished frame or receiver that has been so marked in
6    compliance with the federal guidelines set forth in 27 CFR
7    478.124.
8        (4) (Blank). Every federally licensed firearms dealer
9    or other federal licensee that engraves, casts, stamps, or
10    otherwise conspicuously and permanently places a unique
11    serial number pursuant to this Section shall review and
12    confirm the validity of the owner's Firearm Owner's
13    Identification Card issued under the Firearm Owners
14    Identification Card Act prior to returning the firearm to
15    the owner.
16    (g) Within 30 days after May 18, 2022 (the effective date
17of Public Act 102-889), the Director of the Illinois State
18Police shall issue a public notice regarding the provisions of
19this Section. The notice shall include posting on the Illinois
20State Police website and may include written notification or
21any other means of communication statewide to all
22Illinois-based federal firearms manufacturers, federal
23firearms dealers, or other federal licensees authorized to
24provide marking services in compliance with the serialization
25process in subsection (f) in order to educate the public.
26    (h) Exceptions. This Section does not apply to an

 

 

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1unserialized unfinished frame or receiver or an unserialized
2firearm that:
3        (1) has been rendered permanently inoperable;
4        (2) is an antique firearm, as defined in 18 U.S.C.
5    921(a)(16);
6        (3) was manufactured prior to October 22, 1968;
7        (4) is an unfinished frame or receiver and is
8    possessed by a bona fide supplier exclusively for transfer
9    to a federal firearms manufacturer or federal firearms
10    importer, or is possessed by a federal firearms
11    manufacturer or federal firearms importer in compliance
12    with all federal laws and regulations regulating the
13    manufacture and import of firearms; except this exemption
14    does not apply if an unfinished frame or receiver is
15    possessed for transfer or is transferred to a person other
16    than a federal firearms manufacturer or federal firearms
17    importer; or
18        (5) is possessed by a person who received the
19    unserialized unfinished frame or receiver or unserialized
20    firearm through inheritance, and is not otherwise
21    prohibited from possessing the unserialized unfinished
22    frame or receiver or unserialized firearm, for a period
23    not exceeding 30 days after inheriting the unserialized
24    unfinished frame or receiver or unserialized firearm.
25    (i) Penalties.
26        (1) A person who violates subsection (c) or (d) is

 

 

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1    guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for a first violation and
2    is guilty of a Class 3 felony for a second or subsequent
3    violation.
4        (2) A person who violates subsection (b) is guilty of
5    a Class 4 felony for a first violation and is guilty of a
6    Class 2 felony for a second or subsequent violation.
7(Source: P.A. 102-889, eff. 5-18-22; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24.)
 
8    (720 ILCS 5/24-9)
9    Sec. 24-9. Firearms; Child Protection.
10    (a) Except as provided in subsection (c), it is unlawful
11for any person to store or leave, within premises under his or
12her control, a firearm if the person knows or has reason to
13believe that a minor under the age of 18 years who does not
14have a Firearm Owners Identification Card is likely to gain
15access to the firearm without the lawful permission of the
16person possessing the firearm, minor's parent, guardian, or
17person having charge of the minor, and the minor causes death
18or great bodily harm with the firearm, unless the firearm is:
19        (1) secured by a device or mechanism, other than the
20    firearm safety, designed to render a firearm temporarily
21    inoperable; or
22        (2) placed in a securely locked box or container.
23    (b) Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty
24of a Class C misdemeanor and shall be fined not less than
25$1,000. A second or subsequent violation of this Section is a

 

 

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1Class A misdemeanor.
2    (c) Subsection (a) does not apply:
3        (1) if the minor under 18 years of age gains access to
4    a firearm and uses it in a lawful act of self-defense or
5    defense of another; or
6        (2) to any firearm obtained by a minor under the age of
7    18 because of an unlawful entry of the premises by the
8    minor or another person.
9    (d) (Blank). For the purposes of this Section, "firearm"
10has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 1.1 of the Firearm
11Owners Identification Card Act.
12(Source: P.A. 104-31, eff. 1-1-26.)
 
13    Section 80. The Methamphetamine Control and Community
14Protection Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:
 
15    (720 ILCS 646/10)
16    Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:
17    "Anhydrous ammonia" has the meaning provided in subsection
18(d) of Section 3 of the Illinois Fertilizer Act of 1961.
19    "Anhydrous ammonia equipment" means all items used to
20store, hold, contain, handle, transfer, transport, or apply
21anhydrous ammonia for lawful purposes.
22    "Booby trap" means any device designed to cause physical
23injury when triggered by an act of a person approaching,
24entering, or moving through a structure, a vehicle, or any

 

 

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1location where methamphetamine has been manufactured, is being
2manufactured, or is intended to be manufactured.
3    "Deliver" or "delivery" has the meaning provided in
4subsection (h) of Section 102 of the Illinois Controlled
5Substances Act.
6    "Director" means the Director of the Illinois State Police
7or the Director's designated agents.
8    "Dispose" or "disposal" means to abandon, discharge,
9release, deposit, inject, dump, spill, leak, or place
10methamphetamine waste onto or into any land, water, or well of
11any type so that the waste has the potential to enter the
12environment, be emitted into the air, or be discharged into
13the soil or any waters, including groundwater.
14    "Emergency response" means the act of collecting evidence
15from or securing a methamphetamine laboratory site,
16methamphetamine waste site or other methamphetamine-related
17site and cleaning up the site, whether these actions are
18performed by public entities or private contractors paid by
19public entities.
20    "Emergency service provider" means a local, State, or
21federal peace officer, firefighter, emergency medical
22technician-ambulance, emergency medical
23technician-intermediate, emergency medical
24technician-paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical or
25first aid personnel rendering aid, or any agent or designee of
26the foregoing.

 

 

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1    "Finished methamphetamine" means methamphetamine in a form
2commonly used for personal consumption.
3    "Firearm" has the meaning provided in Section 2-7.5 of the
4Criminal Code of 2012 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification
5Card Act.
6    "Manufacture" means to produce, prepare, compound,
7convert, process, synthesize, concentrate, purify, separate,
8extract, or package any methamphetamine, methamphetamine
9precursor, methamphetamine manufacturing catalyst,
10methamphetamine manufacturing reagent, methamphetamine
11manufacturing solvent, or any substance containing any of the
12foregoing.
13    "Methamphetamine" means the chemical methamphetamine (a
14Schedule II controlled substance under the Illinois Controlled
15Substances Act) or any salt, optical isomer, salt of optical
16isomer, or analog thereof, with the exception of
173,4-Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA) or any other
18scheduled substance with a separate listing under the Illinois
19Controlled Substances Act.
20    "Methamphetamine manufacturing catalyst" means any
21substance that has been used, is being used, or is intended to
22be used to activate, accelerate, extend, or improve a chemical
23reaction involved in the manufacture of methamphetamine.
24    "Methamphetamine manufacturing environment" means a
25structure or vehicle in which:
26        (1) methamphetamine is being or has been manufactured;

 

 

SB3171- 328 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        (2) chemicals that are being used, have been used, or
2    are intended to be used to manufacture methamphetamine are
3    stored;
4        (3) methamphetamine manufacturing materials that have
5    been used to manufacture methamphetamine are stored; or
6        (4) methamphetamine manufacturing waste is stored.
7    "Methamphetamine manufacturing material" means any
8methamphetamine precursor, substance containing any
9methamphetamine precursor, methamphetamine manufacturing
10catalyst, substance containing any methamphetamine
11manufacturing catalyst, methamphetamine manufacturing
12reagent, substance containing any methamphetamine
13manufacturing reagent, methamphetamine manufacturing solvent,
14substance containing any methamphetamine manufacturing
15solvent, or any other chemical, substance, ingredient,
16equipment, apparatus, or item that is being used, has been
17used, or is intended to be used in the manufacture of
18methamphetamine.
19    "Methamphetamine manufacturing reagent" means any
20substance other than a methamphetamine manufacturing catalyst
21that has been used, is being used, or is intended to be used to
22react with and chemically alter any methamphetamine precursor.
23    "Methamphetamine manufacturing solvent" means any
24substance that has been used, is being used, or is intended to
25be used as a medium in which any methamphetamine precursor,
26methamphetamine manufacturing catalyst, methamphetamine

 

 

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1manufacturing reagent, or any substance containing any of the
2foregoing is dissolved, diluted, or washed during any part of
3the methamphetamine manufacturing process.
4    "Methamphetamine manufacturing waste" means any chemical,
5substance, ingredient, equipment, apparatus, or item that is
6left over from, results from, or is produced by the process of
7manufacturing methamphetamine, other than finished
8methamphetamine.
9    "Methamphetamine precursor" means ephedrine,
10pseudoephedrine, benzyl methyl ketone, methyl benzyl ketone,
11phenylacetone, phenyl-2-propanone, P2P, or any salt, optical
12isomer, or salt of an optical isomer of any of these chemicals.
13    "Multi-unit dwelling" means a unified structure used or
14intended for use as a habitation, home, or residence that
15contains 2 or more condominiums, apartments, hotel rooms,
16motel rooms, or other living units.
17    "Package" means an item marked for retail sale that is not
18designed to be further broken down or subdivided for the
19purpose of retail sale.
20    "Participate" or "participation" in the manufacture of
21methamphetamine means to produce, prepare, compound, convert,
22process, synthesize, concentrate, purify, separate, extract,
23or package any methamphetamine, methamphetamine precursor,
24methamphetamine manufacturing catalyst, methamphetamine
25manufacturing reagent, methamphetamine manufacturing solvent,
26or any substance containing any of the foregoing, or to assist

 

 

SB3171- 330 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1in any of these actions, or to attempt to take any of these
2actions, regardless of whether this action or these actions
3result in the production of finished methamphetamine.
4    "Person with a disability" means a person who suffers from
5a permanent physical or mental impairment resulting from
6disease, injury, functional disorder, or congenital condition
7which renders the person incapable of adequately providing for
8his or her own health and personal care.
9    "Procure" means to purchase, steal, gather, or otherwise
10obtain, by legal or illegal means, or to cause another to take
11such action.
12    "Second or subsequent offense" means an offense under this
13Act committed by an offender who previously committed an
14offense under this Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances
15Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or another Act of this State,
16another state, or the United States relating to
17methamphetamine, cannabis, or any other controlled substance.
18    "Standard dosage form", as used in relation to any
19methamphetamine precursor, means that the methamphetamine
20precursor is contained in a pill, tablet, capsule, caplet, gel
21cap, or liquid cap that has been manufactured by a lawful
22entity and contains a standard quantity of methamphetamine
23precursor.
24    "Unauthorized container", as used in relation to anhydrous
25ammonia, means any container that is not designed for the
26specific and sole purpose of holding, storing, transporting,

 

 

SB3171- 331 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1or applying anhydrous ammonia. "Unauthorized container"
2includes, but is not limited to, any propane tank, fire
3extinguisher, oxygen cylinder, gasoline can, food or beverage
4cooler, or compressed gas cylinder used in dispensing fountain
5drinks. "Unauthorized container" does not encompass anhydrous
6ammonia manufacturing plants, refrigeration systems where
7anhydrous ammonia is used solely as a refrigerant, anhydrous
8ammonia transportation pipelines, anhydrous ammonia tankers,
9or anhydrous ammonia barges.
10(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)
 
11    Section 85. The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 is
12amended by changing Sections 102-7.1, 110-10, 112A-5.5,
13112A-11.1, 112A-11.2, 112A-14, 112A-14.7, and 112A-17.5 as
14follows:
 
15    (725 ILCS 5/102-7.1)
16    Sec. 102-7.1. "Category A offense". "Category A offense"
17means a Class 1 felony, Class 2 felony, Class X felony, first
18degree murder, a violation of Section 11-204 of the Illinois
19Vehicle Code, a second or subsequent violation of Section
2011-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, a violation of subsection
21(d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, a
22violation of Section 11-401 of the Illinois Vehicle Code if
23the crash results in injury and the person failed to report the
24crash within 30 minutes, a violation of Section 9-3, 9-3.4,

 

 

SB3171- 332 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

110-3, 10-3.1, 10-5, 11-6, 11-9.2, 11-20.1, 11-23.5, 11-25,
212-2, 12-3, 12-3.05, 12-3.2, 12-3.4, 12-4.4a, 12-5, 12-6,
312-7.1, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 12C-5, 24-1.1, 24-1.5, 24-3,
425-1, 26.5-2, or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012, a second or
5subsequent violation of 12-3.2 or 12-3.4 of the Criminal Code
6of 2012, a violation of paragraph (5) or (6) of subsection (b)
7of Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012, a violation of
8subsection (b) or (c) or paragraph (1) or (2) of subsection (a)
9of Section 11-1.50 of the Criminal Code of 2012, a violation of
10Section 12-7 of the Criminal Code of 2012 if the defendant
11inflicts bodily harm on the victim to obtain a confession,
12statement, or information, a violation of Section 12-7.5 of
13the Criminal Code of 2012 if the action results in bodily harm,
14a violation of paragraph (3) of subsection (b) of Section 17-2
15of the Criminal Code of 2012, a violation of subdivision
16(a)(7)(ii) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012, a
17violation of paragraph (6) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1
18of the Criminal Code of 2012, a first violation of Section
1924-1.6 of the Criminal Code of 2012 by a person 18 years of age
20or older where the factors listed in both items (A) and (C) or
21both items (A-5) and (C) of paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of
22Section 24-1.6 of the Criminal Code of 2012 are present, a
23Class 3 felony violation of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of
24Section 2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act
25committed before the effective date of this amendatory Act of
26the 104th General Assembly, or a violation of Section 10 of the

 

 

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1Sex Offender Registration Act.
2(Source: P.A. 102-982, eff. 7-1-23.)
 
3    (725 ILCS 5/110-10)  (from Ch. 38, par. 110-10)
4    Sec. 110-10. Conditions of pretrial release.
5    (a) If a person is released prior to conviction, the
6conditions of pretrial release shall be that he or she will:
7        (1) Appear to answer the charge in the court having
8    jurisdiction on a day certain and thereafter as ordered by
9    the court until discharged or final order of the court;
10        (2) Submit himself or herself to the orders and
11    process of the court;
12        (3) (Blank);
13        (4) Not violate any criminal statute of any
14    jurisdiction;
15        (5) At a time and place designated by the court,
16    surrender all firearms in his or her possession to a law
17    enforcement officer designated by the court to take
18    custody of and impound the firearms and physically
19    surrender his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card    
20    to the clerk of the circuit court when the offense the
21    person has been charged with is a forcible felony,
22    stalking, aggravated stalking, domestic battery, any
23    violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the
24    Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or
25    the Cannabis Control Act that is classified as a Class 2 or

 

 

SB3171- 334 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    greater felony, or any felony violation of Article 24 of
2    the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; the
3    court may, however, forgo the imposition of this condition
4    when the circumstances of the case clearly do not warrant
5    it or when its imposition would be impractical; if the
6    Firearm Owner's Identification Card is confiscated, the
7    clerk of the circuit court shall mail the confiscated card
8    to the Illinois State Police; all legally possessed
9    firearms shall be returned to the person upon the charges
10    being dismissed, or if the person is found not guilty,
11    unless the finding of not guilty is by reason of insanity;
12    and
13        (6) At a time and place designated by the court,
14    submit to a psychological evaluation when the person has
15    been charged with a violation of item (4) of subsection
16    (a) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
17    Criminal Code of 2012 and that violation occurred in a
18    school or in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted
19    by a school to transport students to or from school or a
20    school-related activity, or on any public way within 1,000
21    feet of real property comprising any school.
22    Psychological evaluations ordered pursuant to this Section
23shall be completed promptly and made available to the State,
24the defendant, and the court. As a further condition of
25pretrial release under these circumstances, the court shall
26order the defendant to refrain from entering upon the property

 

 

SB3171- 335 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1of the school, including any conveyance owned, leased, or
2contracted by a school to transport students to or from school
3or a school-related activity, or on any public way within
41,000 feet of real property comprising any school. Upon
5receipt of the psychological evaluation, either the State or
6the defendant may request a change in the conditions of
7pretrial release, pursuant to Section 110-6 of this Code. The
8court may change the conditions of pretrial release to include
9a requirement that the defendant follow the recommendations of
10the psychological evaluation, including undergoing psychiatric
11treatment. The conclusions of the psychological evaluation and
12any statements elicited from the defendant during its
13administration are not admissible as evidence of guilt during
14the course of any trial on the charged offense, unless the
15defendant places his or her mental competency in issue.
16    (b) Additional conditions of release shall be set only
17when it is determined that they are necessary to ensure the
18defendant's appearance in court, ensure the defendant does not
19commit any criminal offense, ensure the defendant complies
20with all conditions of pretrial release, prevent the
21defendant's unlawful interference with the orderly
22administration of justice, or ensure compliance with the rules
23and procedures of problem solving courts. However, conditions
24shall include the least restrictive means and be
25individualized. Conditions shall not mandate rehabilitative
26services unless directly tied to the risk of pretrial

 

 

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1misconduct. Conditions of supervision shall not include
2punitive measures such as community service work or
3restitution. Conditions may include the following:
4        (0.05) Not depart this State without leave of the
5    court;
6        (1) Report to or appear in person before such person
7    or agency as the court may direct;
8        (2) Refrain from possessing a firearm or other
9    dangerous weapon;
10        (3) Refrain from approaching or communicating with
11    particular persons or classes of persons;
12        (4) Refrain from going to certain described geographic
13    areas or premises;
14        (5) Be placed under direct supervision of the Pretrial
15    Services Agency, Probation Department or Court Services
16    Department in a pretrial home supervision capacity with or
17    without the use of an approved electronic monitoring
18    device subject to Article 8A of Chapter V of the Unified
19    Code of Corrections;
20        (6) For persons charged with violating Section 11-501
21    of the Illinois Vehicle Code, refrain from operating a
22    motor vehicle not equipped with an ignition interlock
23    device, as defined in Section 1-129.1 of the Illinois
24    Vehicle Code, pursuant to the rules promulgated by the
25    Secretary of State for the installation of ignition
26    interlock devices. Under this condition the court may

 

 

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1    allow a defendant who is not self-employed to operate a
2    vehicle owned by the defendant's employer that is not
3    equipped with an ignition interlock device in the course
4    and scope of the defendant's employment;
5        (7) Comply with the terms and conditions of an order
6    of protection issued by the court under the Illinois
7    Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or an order of protection
8    issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United
9    States territory;
10        (8) Sign a written admonishment requiring that he or
11    she comply with the provisions of Section 110-12 regarding
12    any change in his or her address. The defendant's address
13    shall at all times remain a matter of record with the clerk
14    of the court; and
15        (9) Such other reasonable conditions as the court may
16    impose, so long as these conditions are the least
17    restrictive means to achieve the goals listed in
18    subsection (b), are individualized, and are in accordance
19    with national best practices as detailed in the Pretrial
20    Supervision Standards of the Supreme Court.
21    The defendant shall receive verbal and written
22notification of conditions of pretrial release and future
23court dates, including the date, time, and location of court.
24    (c) When a person is charged with an offense under Section
2511-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14,
2612-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the

 

 

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1Criminal Code of 2012, involving a victim who is a minor under
218 years of age living in the same household with the defendant
3at the time of the offense, in releasing the defendant, the
4judge shall impose conditions to restrict the defendant's
5access to the victim which may include, but are not limited to
6conditions that he will:
7        1. Vacate the household.
8        2. Make payment of temporary support to his
9    dependents.
10        3. Refrain from contact or communication with the
11    child victim, except as ordered by the court.
12    (d) When a person is charged with a criminal offense and
13the victim is a family or household member as defined in
14Article 112A, conditions shall be imposed at the time of the
15defendant's release that restrict the defendant's access to
16the victim. Unless provided otherwise by the court, the
17restrictions shall include requirements that the defendant do
18the following:
19        (1) refrain from contact or communication with the
20    victim for a minimum period of 72 hours following the
21    defendant's release; and
22        (2) refrain from entering or remaining at the victim's
23    residence for a minimum period of 72 hours following the
24    defendant's release.
25    (e) Local law enforcement agencies shall develop
26standardized pretrial release forms for use in cases involving

 

 

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1family or household members as defined in Article 112A,
2including specific conditions of pretrial release as provided
3in subsection (d). Failure of any law enforcement department
4to develop or use those forms shall in no way limit the
5applicability and enforcement of subsections (d) and (f).
6    (f) If the defendant is released after conviction
7following appeal or other post-conviction proceeding, the
8conditions of the pretrial release shall be that he will, in
9addition to the conditions set forth in subsections (a) and
10(b) hereof:
11        (1) Duly prosecute his appeal;
12        (2) Appear at such time and place as the court may
13    direct;
14        (3) Not depart this State without leave of the court;
15        (4) Comply with such other reasonable conditions as
16    the court may impose; and
17        (5) If the judgment is affirmed or the cause reversed
18    and remanded for a new trial, forthwith surrender to the
19    officer from whose custody he was released.
20    (g) Upon a finding of guilty for any felony offense, the
21defendant shall physically surrender, at a time and place
22designated by the court, any and all firearms in his or her
23possession and his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card    
24as a condition of being released pending sentencing.
25(Source: P.A. 101-138, eff. 1-1-20; 101-652, eff. 1-1-23;
26102-1104, eff. 1-1-23.)
 

 

 

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1    (725 ILCS 5/112A-5.5)
2    Sec. 112A-5.5. Time for filing petition; service on
3respondent, hearing on petition, and default orders.    
4    (a) A petition for a protective order may be filed at any
5time, in person or online, after a criminal charge or
6delinquency petition is filed and before the charge or
7delinquency petition is dismissed, the defendant or juvenile
8is acquitted, or the defendant or juvenile completes service
9of his or her sentence.
10    (b) The request for an ex parte protective order may be
11considered without notice to the respondent under Section
12112A-17.5 of this Code.
13    (c) A summons shall be issued and served for a protective
14order. The summons may be served by delivery to the respondent
15personally in open court in the criminal or juvenile
16delinquency proceeding, in the form prescribed by subsection
17(d) of Supreme Court Rule 101, except that it shall require the
18respondent to answer or appear within 7 days. Attachments to
19the summons shall include the petition for protective order,
20supporting affidavits, if any, and any ex parte protective
21order that has been issued.
22    (d) The summons shall be served by the sheriff or other law
23enforcement officer at the earliest time available and shall
24take precedence over any other summons, except those of a
25similar emergency nature. Attachments to the summons shall

 

 

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1include the petition for protective order, supporting
2affidavits, if any, and any ex parte protective order that has
3been issued. Special process servers may be appointed at any
4time and their designation shall not affect the
5responsibilities and authority of the sheriff or other
6official process servers. In a county with a population over
73,000,000, a special process server may not be appointed if
8the protective order grants the surrender of a child, the
9surrender of a firearm or Firearm Owner's Identification Card,    
10or the exclusive possession of a shared residence.
11    (e) If the respondent is not served within 30 days of the
12filing of the petition, the court shall schedule a court
13proceeding on the issue of service. Either the petitioner, the
14petitioner's counsel, or the State's Attorney shall appear and
15the court shall either order continued attempts at personal
16service or shall order service by publication, in accordance
17with Sections 2-203, 2-206, and 2-207 of the Code of Civil
18Procedure.
19    (f) The request for a final protective order can be
20considered at any court proceeding in the delinquency or
21criminal case after service of the petition. If the petitioner
22has not been provided notice of the court proceeding at least
2310 days in advance of the proceeding, the court shall schedule
24a hearing on the petition and provide notice to the
25petitioner.
26    (f-5) A court in a county with a population above 250,000

 

 

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1shall offer the option of a remote hearing to a petitioner for
2a protective order. The court has the discretion to grant or
3deny the request for a remote hearing. Each court shall
4determine the procedure for a remote hearing. The petitioner
5and respondent may appear remotely or in person.
6    The court shall issue and publish a court order, standing
7order, or local rule detailing information about the process
8for requesting and participating in a remote court appearance.
9The court order, standing order, or local rule shall be
10published on the court's website and posted on signs
11throughout the courthouse, including in the clerk's office.
12The sign shall be written in plain language and include
13information about the availability of remote court appearances
14and the process for requesting a remote hearing.
15    (g) Default orders.
16        (1) A final domestic violence order of protection may
17    be entered by default:
18            (A) for any of the remedies sought in the
19        petition, if the respondent has been served with
20        documents under subsection (b) or (c) of this Section
21        and if the respondent fails to appear on the specified
22        return date or any subsequent hearing date agreed to
23        by the petitioner and respondent or set by the court;
24        or
25            (B) for any of the remedies provided under
26        paragraph (1), (2), (3), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9),

 

 

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1        (10), (11), (14), (15), (17), or (18) of subsection
2        (b) of Section 112A-14 of this Code, or if the
3        respondent fails to answer or appear in accordance
4        with the date set in the publication notice or the
5        return date indicated on the service of a household
6        member.
7        (2) A final civil no contact order may be entered by
8    default for any of the remedies provided in Section
9    112A-14.5 of this Code, if the respondent has been served
10    with documents under subsection (b) or (c) of this
11    Section, and if the respondent fails to answer or appear
12    in accordance with the date set in the publication notice
13    or the return date indicated on the service of a household
14    member.
15        (3) A final stalking no contact order may be entered
16    by default for any of the remedies provided by Section
17    112A-14.7 of this Code, if the respondent has been served
18    with documents under subsection (b) or (c) of this Section
19    and if the respondent fails to answer or appear in
20    accordance with the date set in the publication notice or
21    the return date indicated on the service of a household
22    member.
23(Source: P.A. 102-853, eff. 1-1-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23.)
 
24    (725 ILCS 5/112A-11.1)
25    Sec. 112A-11.1. Procedure for determining whether certain

 

 

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1misdemeanor crimes are crimes of domestic violence for
2purposes of federal law.
3    (a) When a defendant has been charged with a violation of
4Section 12-1, 12-2, 12-3, 12-3.2, 12-3.4, or 12-3.5 of the
5Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the State
6may, at arraignment or no later than 45 days after
7arraignment, for the purpose of notification to the Illinois
8State Police Firearm Owner's Identification Card Office, serve
9on the defendant and file with the court a notice alleging that
10conviction of the offense would subject the defendant to the
11prohibitions of 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(9) because of the
12relationship between the defendant and the alleged victim and
13the nature of the alleged offense.
14    (b) The notice shall include the name of the person
15alleged to be the victim of the crime and shall specify the
16nature of the alleged relationship as set forth in 18 U.S.C.
17921(a)(33)(A)(ii). It shall also specify the element of the
18charged offense which requires the use or attempted use of
19physical force, or the threatened use of a deadly weapon, as
20set forth 18 U.S.C. 921(a)(33)(A)(ii). It shall also include
21notice that the defendant is entitled to a hearing on the
22allegation contained in the notice and that if the allegation
23is sustained, that determination and conviction shall be
24reported to the Illinois State Police Firearm Owner's
25Identification Card Office.
26    (c) After having been notified as provided in subsection

 

 

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1(b) of this Section, the defendant may stipulate or admit,
2orally on the record or in writing, that conviction of the
3offense would subject the defendant to the prohibitions of 18
4U.S.C. 922(g)(9). In that case, the applicability of 18 U.S.C.
5922(g)(9) shall be deemed established for purposes of Section
6112A-11.2. If the defendant denies the applicability of 18
7U.S.C. 922(g)(9) as alleged in the notice served by the State,
8or stands mute with respect to that allegation, then the State
9shall bear the burden to prove beyond a reasonable doubt that
10the offense is one to which the prohibitions of 18 U.S.C.
11922(g)(9) apply. The court may consider reliable hearsay
12evidence submitted by either party provided that it is
13relevant to the determination of the allegation. Facts
14previously proven at trial or elicited at the time of entry of
15a plea of guilty shall be deemed established beyond a
16reasonable doubt and shall not be relitigated. At the
17conclusion of the hearing, or upon a stipulation or admission,
18as applicable, the court shall make a specific written
19determination with respect to the allegation.
20(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)
 
21    (725 ILCS 5/112A-11.2)
22    Sec. 112A-11.2. Notification to the Illinois State Police
23Firearm Owner's Identification Card Office of determinations
24in certain misdemeanor cases. Upon judgment of conviction of a
25violation of Section 12-1, 12-2, 12-3, 12-3.2, 12-3.4, or

 

 

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112-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of
22012 when the defendant has been determined, under Section
3112A-11.1, to be subject to the prohibitions of 18 U.S.C.
4922(g)(9), the circuit court clerk shall include notification
5and a copy of the written determination in a report of the
6conviction to the Illinois State Police Firearm Owner's
7Identification Card Office to enable the office to report that
8determination to the Federal Bureau of Investigation and
9assist the Bureau in identifying persons prohibited from
10purchasing and possessing a firearm pursuant to the provisions
11of 18 U.S.C. 922.
12(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)
 
13    (725 ILCS 5/112A-14)  (from Ch. 38, par. 112A-14)
14    Sec. 112A-14. Domestic violence order of protection;
15remedies.
16    (a) (Blank).
17    (b) The court may order any of the remedies listed in this
18subsection (b). The remedies listed in this subsection (b)
19shall be in addition to other civil or criminal remedies
20available to petitioner.
21        (1) Prohibition of abuse. Prohibit respondent's
22    harassment, interference with personal liberty,
23    intimidation of a dependent, physical abuse, or willful
24    deprivation, as defined in this Article, if such abuse has
25    occurred or otherwise appears likely to occur if not

 

 

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1    prohibited.
2        (2) Grant of exclusive possession of residence.
3    Prohibit respondent from entering or remaining in any
4    residence, household, or premises of the petitioner,
5    including one owned or leased by respondent, if petitioner
6    has a right to occupancy thereof. The grant of exclusive
7    possession of the residence, household, or premises shall
8    not affect title to real property, nor shall the court be
9    limited by the standard set forth in subsection (c-2) of
10    Section 501 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of
11    Marriage Act.
12            (A) Right to occupancy. A party has a right to
13        occupancy of a residence or household if it is solely
14        or jointly owned or leased by that party, that party's
15        spouse, a person with a legal duty to support that
16        party or a minor child in that party's care, or by any
17        person or entity other than the opposing party that
18        authorizes that party's occupancy (e.g., a domestic
19        violence shelter). Standards set forth in subparagraph
20        (B) shall not preclude equitable relief.
21            (B) Presumption of hardships. If petitioner and
22        respondent each has the right to occupancy of a
23        residence or household, the court shall balance (i)
24        the hardships to respondent and any minor child or
25        dependent adult in respondent's care resulting from
26        entry of this remedy with (ii) the hardships to

 

 

SB3171- 348 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        petitioner and any minor child or dependent adult in
2        petitioner's care resulting from continued exposure to
3        the risk of abuse (should petitioner remain at the
4        residence or household) or from loss of possession of
5        the residence or household (should petitioner leave to
6        avoid the risk of abuse). When determining the balance
7        of hardships, the court shall also take into account
8        the accessibility of the residence or household.
9        Hardships need not be balanced if respondent does not
10        have a right to occupancy.
11            The balance of hardships is presumed to favor
12        possession by petitioner unless the presumption is
13        rebutted by a preponderance of the evidence, showing
14        that the hardships to respondent substantially
15        outweigh the hardships to petitioner and any minor
16        child or dependent adult in petitioner's care. The
17        court, on the request of petitioner or on its own
18        motion, may order respondent to provide suitable,
19        accessible, alternate housing for petitioner instead
20        of excluding respondent from a mutual residence or
21        household.
22        (3) Stay away order and additional prohibitions. Order
23    respondent to stay away from petitioner or any other
24    person protected by the domestic violence order of
25    protection, or prohibit respondent from entering or
26    remaining present at petitioner's school, place of

 

 

SB3171- 349 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    employment, or other specified places at times when
2    petitioner is present, or both, if reasonable, given the
3    balance of hardships. Hardships need not be balanced for
4    the court to enter a stay away order or prohibit entry if
5    respondent has no right to enter the premises.
6            (A) If a domestic violence order of protection
7        grants petitioner exclusive possession of the
8        residence, prohibits respondent from entering the
9        residence, or orders respondent to stay away from
10        petitioner or other protected persons, then the court
11        may allow respondent access to the residence to remove
12        items of clothing and personal adornment used
13        exclusively by respondent, medications, and other
14        items as the court directs. The right to access shall
15        be exercised on only one occasion as the court directs
16        and in the presence of an agreed-upon adult third
17        party or law enforcement officer.
18            (B) When the petitioner and the respondent attend
19        the same public, private, or non-public elementary,
20        middle, or high school, the court when issuing a
21        domestic violence order of protection and providing
22        relief shall consider the severity of the act, any
23        continuing physical danger or emotional distress to
24        the petitioner, the educational rights guaranteed to
25        the petitioner and respondent under federal and State
26        law, the availability of a transfer of the respondent

 

 

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1        to another school, a change of placement or a change of
2        program of the respondent, the expense, difficulty,
3        and educational disruption that would be caused by a
4        transfer of the respondent to another school, and any
5        other relevant facts of the case. The court may order
6        that the respondent not attend the public, private, or
7        non-public elementary, middle, or high school attended
8        by the petitioner, order that the respondent accept a
9        change of placement or change of program, as
10        determined by the school district or private or
11        non-public school, or place restrictions on the
12        respondent's movements within the school attended by
13        the petitioner. The respondent bears the burden of
14        proving by a preponderance of the evidence that a
15        transfer, change of placement, or change of program of
16        the respondent is not available. The respondent also
17        bears the burden of production with respect to the
18        expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that
19        would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to
20        another school. A transfer, change of placement, or
21        change of program is not unavailable to the respondent
22        solely on the ground that the respondent does not
23        agree with the school district's or private or
24        non-public school's transfer, change of placement, or
25        change of program or solely on the ground that the
26        respondent fails or refuses to consent or otherwise

 

 

SB3171- 351 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        does not take an action required to effectuate a
2        transfer, change of placement, or change of program.
3        When a court orders a respondent to stay away from the
4        public, private, or non-public school attended by the
5        petitioner and the respondent requests a transfer to
6        another attendance center within the respondent's
7        school district or private or non-public school, the
8        school district or private or non-public school shall
9        have sole discretion to determine the attendance
10        center to which the respondent is transferred. If the
11        court order results in a transfer of the minor
12        respondent to another attendance center, a change in
13        the respondent's placement, or a change of the
14        respondent's program, the parents, guardian, or legal
15        custodian of the respondent is responsible for
16        transportation and other costs associated with the
17        transfer or change.
18            (C) The court may order the parents, guardian, or
19        legal custodian of a minor respondent to take certain
20        actions or to refrain from taking certain actions to
21        ensure that the respondent complies with the order. If
22        the court orders a transfer of the respondent to
23        another school, the parents, guardian, or legal
24        custodian of the respondent is responsible for
25        transportation and other costs associated with the
26        change of school by the respondent.

 

 

SB3171- 352 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        (4) Counseling. Require or recommend the respondent to
2    undergo counseling for a specified duration with a social
3    worker, psychologist, clinical psychologist,
4    psychiatrist, family service agency, alcohol or substance
5    abuse program, mental health center guidance counselor,
6    agency providing services to elders, program designed for
7    domestic violence abusers, or any other guidance service
8    the court deems appropriate. The court may order the
9    respondent in any intimate partner relationship to report
10    to an Illinois Department of Human Services protocol
11    approved partner abuse intervention program for an
12    assessment and to follow all recommended treatment.
13        (5) Physical care and possession of the minor child.
14    In order to protect the minor child from abuse, neglect,
15    or unwarranted separation from the person who has been the
16    minor child's primary caretaker, or to otherwise protect
17    the well-being of the minor child, the court may do either
18    or both of the following: (i) grant petitioner physical
19    care or possession of the minor child, or both, or (ii)
20    order respondent to return a minor child to, or not remove
21    a minor child from, the physical care of a parent or person
22    in loco parentis.
23        If the respondent is charged with abuse (as defined in
24    Section 112A-3 of this Code) of a minor child, there shall
25    be a rebuttable presumption that awarding physical care to
26    respondent would not be in the minor child's best

 

 

SB3171- 353 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    interest.
2        (6) Temporary allocation of parental responsibilities
3    and significant decision-making responsibilities. Award
4    temporary significant decision-making responsibility to
5    petitioner in accordance with this Section, the Illinois
6    Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Illinois
7    Parentage Act of 2015, and this State's Uniform
8    Child-Custody Jurisdiction and Enforcement Act.
9        If the respondent is charged with abuse (as defined in
10    Section 112A-3 of this Code) of a minor child, there shall
11    be a rebuttable presumption that awarding temporary
12    significant decision-making responsibility to respondent
13    would not be in the child's best interest.
14        (7) Parenting time. Determine the parenting time, if
15    any, of respondent in any case in which the court awards
16    physical care or temporary significant decision-making
17    responsibility of a minor child to petitioner. The court
18    shall restrict or deny respondent's parenting time with a
19    minor child if the court finds that respondent has done or
20    is likely to do any of the following:
21            (i) abuse or endanger the minor child during
22        parenting time;
23            (ii) use the parenting time as an opportunity to
24        abuse or harass petitioner or petitioner's family or
25        household members;
26            (iii) improperly conceal or detain the minor

 

 

SB3171- 354 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        child; or
2            (iv) otherwise act in a manner that is not in the
3        best interests of the minor child.
4        The court shall not be limited by the standards set
5    forth in Section 603.10 of the Illinois Marriage and
6    Dissolution of Marriage Act. If the court grants parenting
7    time, the order shall specify dates and times for the
8    parenting time to take place or other specific parameters
9    or conditions that are appropriate. No order for parenting
10    time shall refer merely to the term "reasonable parenting
11    time". Petitioner may deny respondent access to the minor
12    child if, when respondent arrives for parenting time,
13    respondent is under the influence of drugs or alcohol and
14    constitutes a threat to the safety and well-being of
15    petitioner or petitioner's minor children or is behaving
16    in a violent or abusive manner. If necessary to protect
17    any member of petitioner's family or household from future
18    abuse, respondent shall be prohibited from coming to
19    petitioner's residence to meet the minor child for
20    parenting time, and the petitioner and respondent shall
21    submit to the court their recommendations for reasonable
22    alternative arrangements for parenting time. A person may
23    be approved to supervise parenting time only after filing
24    an affidavit accepting that responsibility and
25    acknowledging accountability to the court.
26        (8) Removal or concealment of minor child. Prohibit

 

 

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1    respondent from removing a minor child from the State or
2    concealing the child within the State.
3        (9) Order to appear. Order the respondent to appear in
4    court, alone or with a minor child, to prevent abuse,
5    neglect, removal or concealment of the child, to return
6    the child to the custody or care of the petitioner, or to
7    permit any court-ordered interview or examination of the
8    child or the respondent.
9        (10) Possession of personal property. Grant petitioner
10    exclusive possession of personal property and, if
11    respondent has possession or control, direct respondent to
12    promptly make it available to petitioner, if:
13            (i) petitioner, but not respondent, owns the
14        property; or
15            (ii) the petitioner and respondent own the
16        property jointly; sharing it would risk abuse of
17        petitioner by respondent or is impracticable; and the
18        balance of hardships favors temporary possession by
19        petitioner.
20        If petitioner's sole claim to ownership of the
21    property is that it is marital property, the court may
22    award petitioner temporary possession thereof under the
23    standards of subparagraph (ii) of this paragraph only if a
24    proper proceeding has been filed under the Illinois
25    Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as now or
26    hereafter amended.

 

 

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1        No order under this provision shall affect title to
2    property.
3        (11) Protection of property. Forbid the respondent
4    from taking, transferring, encumbering, concealing,
5    damaging, or otherwise disposing of any real or personal
6    property, except as explicitly authorized by the court,
7    if:
8            (i) petitioner, but not respondent, owns the
9        property; or
10            (ii) the petitioner and respondent own the
11        property jointly, and the balance of hardships favors
12        granting this remedy.
13        If petitioner's sole claim to ownership of the
14    property is that it is marital property, the court may
15    grant petitioner relief under subparagraph (ii) of this
16    paragraph only if a proper proceeding has been filed under
17    the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as
18    now or hereafter amended.
19        The court may further prohibit respondent from
20    improperly using the financial or other resources of an
21    aged member of the family or household for the profit or
22    advantage of respondent or of any other person.
23        (11.5) Protection of animals. Grant the petitioner the
24    exclusive care, custody, or control of any animal owned,
25    possessed, leased, kept, or held by either the petitioner
26    or the respondent or a minor child residing in the

 

 

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1    residence or household of either the petitioner or the
2    respondent and order the respondent to stay away from the
3    animal and forbid the respondent from taking,
4    transferring, encumbering, concealing, harming, or
5    otherwise disposing of the animal.
6        (12) Order for payment of support. Order respondent to
7    pay temporary support for the petitioner or any child in
8    the petitioner's care or over whom the petitioner has been
9    allocated parental responsibility, when the respondent has
10    a legal obligation to support that person, in accordance
11    with the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage
12    Act, which shall govern, among other matters, the amount
13    of support, payment through the clerk and withholding of
14    income to secure payment. An order for child support may
15    be granted to a petitioner with lawful physical care of a
16    child, or an order or agreement for physical care of a
17    child, prior to entry of an order allocating significant
18    decision-making responsibility. Such a support order shall
19    expire upon entry of a valid order allocating parental
20    responsibility differently and vacating petitioner's
21    significant decision-making responsibility unless
22    otherwise provided in the order.
23        (13) Order for payment of losses. Order respondent to
24    pay petitioner for losses suffered as a direct result of
25    the abuse. Such losses shall include, but not be limited
26    to, medical expenses, lost earnings or other support,

 

 

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1    repair or replacement of property damaged or taken,
2    reasonable attorney's fees, court costs, and moving or
3    other travel expenses, including additional reasonable
4    expenses for temporary shelter and restaurant meals.
5            (i) Losses affecting family needs. If a party is
6        entitled to seek maintenance, child support, or
7        property distribution from the other party under the
8        Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as
9        now or hereafter amended, the court may order
10        respondent to reimburse petitioner's actual losses, to
11        the extent that such reimbursement would be
12        "appropriate temporary relief", as authorized by
13        subsection (a)(3) of Section 501 of that Act.
14            (ii) Recovery of expenses. In the case of an
15        improper concealment or removal of a minor child, the
16        court may order respondent to pay the reasonable
17        expenses incurred or to be incurred in the search for
18        and recovery of the minor child, including, but not
19        limited to, legal fees, court costs, private
20        investigator fees, and travel costs.
21        (14) Prohibition of entry. Prohibit the respondent
22    from entering or remaining in the residence or household
23    while the respondent is under the influence of alcohol or
24    drugs and constitutes a threat to the safety and
25    well-being of the petitioner or the petitioner's children.
26        (14.5) Prohibition of possession of firearms and

 

 

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1    firearm parts; search and seizure of firearms and firearm
2    parts.
3            (A) Subject to the provisions of subparagraph
4        (B-2), if applicable, a person who is subject to an
5        existing domestic violence order of protection issued
6        under this Code may not lawfully possess firearms,
7        stun guns, or tasers or firearm parts that could be
8        assembled to make an operable firearm or a Firearm
9        Owner's Identification Card under Section 8.2 of the
10        Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.
11            (B) Any firearms in the possession of the
12        respondent, except as provided in subparagraph (C) of
13        this paragraph (14.5) and subject to the provisions of
14        subparagraph (B-2), if applicable, shall be ordered by
15        the court to be surrendered to law enforcement for
16        safekeeping. Any firearms or firearm parts on the
17        respondent's person or at the place of service shall
18        be immediately surrendered to the serving officers at
19        the time of service of the order of protection, and any
20        other firearms or firearm parts shall be surrendered
21        to local law enforcement within 24 hours of service of
22        the order of protection. Any Firearm Owner's
23        Identification Card or Concealed Carry License in the
24        possession of the respondent, except as provided in
25        subparagraph (C), shall also be ordered by the court
26        to be turned over to serving officers at the time of

 

 

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1        service of the order of protection or, if not on the
2        respondent's person or at the location where the
3        respondent is served at the time of service, to local
4        law enforcement within 24 hours of service of the
5        order. The law enforcement agency shall immediately
6        mail the card, as well as any license, to the Illinois
7        State Police Firearm Owner's Identification Card
8        Office for safekeeping.
9            (B-1) Upon request of the petitioner or the
10        State's Attorney on behalf of the petitioner, a law
11        enforcement officer may seek a search warrant based on
12        the allegations in the petition for the Order of
13        Protection.
14                (i) If requested by law enforcement, the court
15            shall issue a search warrant for the seizure of
16            any firearms or firearm parts that could be
17            assembled to make an operable firearm belonging to
18            the respondent at or after entry of an order of
19            protection if the court, based upon sworn
20            testimony and governed by Sections 108-3 and
21            108-4, finds probable cause exists that:
22                    (aa) the respondent poses an immediate and
23                present credible threat to the physical safety
24                of the petitioner protected by the order of
25                protection;
26                    (bb) the respondent possesses firearms or

 

 

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1                firearm parts that could be assembled to make
2                an operable firearm; and
3                    (cc) the firearms or firearm parts that
4                could be assembled to make an operable firearm
5                are located at the residence, vehicle, or
6                other property of the respondent to be
7                searched.
8                (ii) The search warrant shall specify with
9            particularity the scope of the search, including
10            the property to be searched, and shall direct the
11            law enforcement agency to seize the respondent's
12            firearms and firearm parts that could be assembled
13            to make an operable firearm. Law enforcement shall
14            also be directed to seize into their possession
15            any Firearm Owner's Identification Card and any    
16            Concealed Carry License belonging to the
17            respondent.
18                (iii) The law enforcement agency to which the
19            court has directed the warrant shall execute the
20            warrant no later than 96 hours after issuance. The
21            law enforcement agency to which the court has
22            directed the warrant may coordinate with other law
23            enforcement agencies to execute the warrant. A
24            return of the warrant shall be filed by the law
25            enforcement agency within 24 hours of execution,
26            setting forth the time, date, and location where

 

 

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1            the warrant was executed and what items, if any,
2            were seized. If the court is not in session, the
3            return information shall be returned on the next
4            date the court is in session. Subject to the
5            provisions of this Section, peace officers shall
6            have the same authority to execute a warrant
7            issued under this subsection as a warrant issued
8            under Article 108.
9                (iv) If the property to be searched is in
10            another county, the petitioner or the State's
11            Attorney may seek a search warrant in that county
12            with the law enforcement agency with primary
13            responsibility for responding to service calls at
14            the property to be searched. Regardless of whether
15            the petitioner is working with the State's
16            Attorney under subsection (d) of Section 112A-4.5,
17            the petitioner may request the State's Attorney's
18            assistance to request that the law enforcement
19            agency in the county where the property is located
20            seek a search warrant.
21                (v) Service of an order of protection shall,
22            to the extent possible, be concurrent with any
23            warrant issued under this paragraph.
24            (B-2) Ex parte relief may be granted under this
25        paragraph (14.5) only if the court finds that personal
26        injury to the petitioner is likely to occur if the

 

 

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1        respondent received prior notice and if the petitioner
2        has otherwise satisfied the requirements of Section
3        112A-17.5 of this Article.
4            (C) If the respondent is a peace officer as
5        defined in Section 2-13 of the Criminal Code of 2012,
6        the court shall order that any firearms used by the
7        respondent in the performance of his or her duties as a
8        peace officer be surrendered to the chief law
9        enforcement executive of the agency in which the
10        respondent is employed, who shall retain the firearms
11        for safekeeping for the duration of the domestic
12        violence order of protection.
13            (D)(i) Any firearms or firearm parts that could be
14        assembled to make an operable firearm that have been
15        seized or surrendered shall be kept by the law
16        enforcement agency that took possession of the items
17        for safekeeping, except as provided in subparagraph
18        (C), (E), or (F). The period of safekeeping shall be
19        for the duration of the order of protection. Except as
20        provided in subparagraph (F), the respondent is
21        prohibited from transferring firearms or firearm parts
22        to another individual in lieu of surrender to law
23        enforcement. The law enforcement agency shall provide
24        an itemized statement of receipt to the respondent and
25        the court describing any seized or surrendered
26        firearms or firearm parts and informing the respondent

 

 

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1        that the respondent may seek the return of the
2        respondent's items at the end of the order of
3        protection. The law enforcement agency may enter
4        arrangements, as needed, with federally licensed
5        firearm dealers or other law enforcement agencies for
6        the storage of any firearms seized or surrendered
7        under this subsection.
8            (ii) It is the respondent's responsibility to
9        request the return or reinstatement of any Firearm
10        Owner's Identification Card or Concealed Carry License
11        and to notify the Illinois State Police Firearm
12        Owner's Identification Card Office at the end of the
13        Order of Protection.
14            (iii) At the end of the order of protection, a
15        respondent may request the return of any seized or
16        surrendered firearms or firearm parts that could be
17        assembled to make an operable firearm. Seized or
18        surrendered firearms or firearm parts shall be
19        returned within 14 days of the request to the
20        respondent, if the respondent is lawfully eligible to
21        possess firearms, or to a designated third party who
22        is lawfully eligible to possess firearms. If the
23        firearms or firearm parts cannot be returned to
24        respondent because (1) the respondent has not
25        requested the return or transfer of the firearms or
26        firearm parts as set forth in this subparagraph and

 

 

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1        (2) the respondent cannot be located or fails to
2        respond to more than 3 requests to retrieve the
3        firearms, upon petition from the appropriate law
4        enforcement agency and notice to the respondent at the
5        respondent's last known address, the court may order
6        the law enforcement agency to destroy the firearms or
7        firearm parts; use the firearms or firearm parts for
8        training purposes, or for any other application as
9        deemed appropriate by the law enforcement agency; or
10        turn over the firearms or firearm parts to a third
11        party who is lawfully eligible to possess firearms,
12        and who does not reside with respondent.
13            (E)(i) If a person other than the respondent
14        claims title to any firearms or firearm parts that
15        could be assembled to make an operable firearm seized
16        or surrendered under this subsection, the person may
17        petition the court to have the firearm and firearm
18        parts that could be assembled to make an operable
19        firearm returned to him or her with proper notice to
20        the petitioner and respondent. If, at a hearing on the
21        petition, the court determines the person to be the
22        lawful owner of the firearm and firearm parts that
23        could be assembled to make an operable firearm, the
24        firearm and firearm parts that could be assembled to
25        make an operable firearm shall be returned to the
26        person, provided that:

 

 

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1                (aa) the firearm and firearm parts that could
2            be assembled to make an operable firearm are
3            removed from the respondent's custody, control, or
4            possession, and the lawful owner agrees to store
5            the firearm and firearm parts that could be
6            assembled to make an operable firearm in a manner
7            such that the respondent does not have access to
8            or control of the firearm and firearm parts that
9            could be assembled to make an operable firearm;
10            and
11                (bb) the firearm and firearm parts that could
12            be assembled to make an operable firearm are not
13            otherwise unlawfully possessed by the owner.
14            (ii) The person petitioning for the return of his
15        or her firearm and firearm parts that could be
16        assembled to make an operable firearm must swear or
17        affirm by affidavit that he or she:
18                (aa) is the lawful owner of the firearm and
19            firearm parts that could be assembled to make an
20            operable firearm;
21                (bb) shall not transfer the firearm and
22            firearm parts that could be assembled to make an
23            operable firearm to the respondent; and
24                (cc) will store the firearm and firearm parts
25            that could be assembled to make an operable
26            firearm in a manner that the respondent does not

 

 

SB3171- 367 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1            have access to or control of the firearm and
2            firearm parts that could be assembled to make an
3            operable firearm.
4            (F)(i) The respondent may file a motion to
5        transfer, at the next scheduled hearing, any seized or
6        surrendered firearms or firearm parts to a third
7        party. Notice of the motion shall be provided to the
8        petitioner and the third party must appear at the
9        hearing.
10            (ii) The court may order transfer of the seized or
11        surrendered firearm or firearm parts only if:
12                (aa) the third party transferee affirms by
13            affidavit to the open court that:
14                    (I) the third party transferee does not
15                reside with the respondent;
16                    (II) the respondent does not have access
17                to the location in which the third party
18                transferee intends to keep the firearms or
19                firearm parts;
20                    (III) the third party transferee will not
21                transfer the firearm or firearm parts to the
22                respondent or anyone who resides with the
23                respondent;
24                    (IV) the third party transferee will
25                maintain control and possession of the firearm
26                or firearm parts until otherwise ordered by

 

 

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1                the court; and
2                    (V) the third party transferee will be
3                subject to criminal penalties for transferring
4                the firearms or firearm parts to the
5                respondent; and
6                (bb) the court finds that:
7                    (I) (blank) the respondent holds a valid
8                Firearm Owner's Identification; and
9                    (II) the transfer of firearms or firearm
10                parts to the third party transferee does not
11                place the petitioner or any other protected
12                parties at any additional threat or risk of
13                harm.
14        (15) Prohibition of access to records. If a domestic
15    violence order of protection prohibits respondent from
16    having contact with the minor child, or if petitioner's
17    address is omitted under subsection (b) of Section 112A-5
18    of this Code, or if necessary to prevent abuse or wrongful
19    removal or concealment of a minor child, the order shall
20    deny respondent access to, and prohibit respondent from
21    inspecting, obtaining, or attempting to inspect or obtain,
22    school or any other records of the minor child who is in
23    the care of petitioner.
24        (16) Order for payment of shelter services. Order
25    respondent to reimburse a shelter providing temporary
26    housing and counseling services to the petitioner for the

 

 

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1    cost of the services, as certified by the shelter and
2    deemed reasonable by the court.
3        (17) Order for injunctive relief. Enter injunctive
4    relief necessary or appropriate to prevent further abuse
5    of a family or household member or to effectuate one of the
6    granted remedies, if supported by the balance of
7    hardships. If the harm to be prevented by the injunction
8    is abuse or any other harm that one of the remedies listed
9    in paragraphs (1) through (16) of this subsection is
10    designed to prevent, no further evidence is necessary to
11    establish that the harm is an irreparable injury.
12        (18) Telephone services.
13            (A) Unless a condition described in subparagraph
14        (B) of this paragraph exists, the court may, upon
15        request by the petitioner, order a wireless telephone
16        service provider to transfer to the petitioner the
17        right to continue to use a telephone number or numbers
18        indicated by the petitioner and the financial
19        responsibility associated with the number or numbers,
20        as set forth in subparagraph (C) of this paragraph. In
21        this paragraph (18), the term "wireless telephone
22        service provider" means a provider of commercial
23        mobile service as defined in 47 U.S.C. 332. The
24        petitioner may request the transfer of each telephone
25        number that the petitioner, or a minor child in his or
26        her custody, uses. The clerk of the court shall serve

 

 

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1        the order on the wireless telephone service provider's
2        agent for service of process provided to the Illinois
3        Commerce Commission. The order shall contain all of
4        the following:
5                (i) The name and billing telephone number of
6            the account holder including the name of the
7            wireless telephone service provider that serves
8            the account.
9                (ii) Each telephone number that will be
10            transferred.
11                (iii) A statement that the provider transfers
12            to the petitioner all financial responsibility for
13            and right to the use of any telephone number
14            transferred under this paragraph.
15            (B) A wireless telephone service provider shall
16        terminate the respondent's use of, and shall transfer
17        to the petitioner use of, the telephone number or
18        numbers indicated in subparagraph (A) of this
19        paragraph unless it notifies the petitioner, within 72
20        hours after it receives the order, that one of the
21        following applies:
22                (i) The account holder named in the order has
23            terminated the account.
24                (ii) A difference in network technology would
25            prevent or impair the functionality of a device on
26            a network if the transfer occurs.

 

 

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1                (iii) The transfer would cause a geographic or
2            other limitation on network or service provision
3            to the petitioner.
4                (iv) Another technological or operational
5            issue would prevent or impair the use of the
6            telephone number if the transfer occurs.
7            (C) The petitioner assumes all financial
8        responsibility for and right to the use of any
9        telephone number transferred under this paragraph. In
10        this paragraph, "financial responsibility" includes
11        monthly service costs and costs associated with any
12        mobile device associated with the number.
13            (D) A wireless telephone service provider may
14        apply to the petitioner its routine and customary
15        requirements for establishing an account or
16        transferring a number, including requiring the
17        petitioner to provide proof of identification,
18        financial information, and customer preferences.
19            (E) Except for willful or wanton misconduct, a
20        wireless telephone service provider is immune from
21        civil liability for its actions taken in compliance
22        with a court order issued under this paragraph.
23            (F) All wireless service providers that provide
24        services to residential customers shall provide to the
25        Illinois Commerce Commission the name and address of
26        an agent for service of orders entered under this

 

 

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1        paragraph (18). Any change in status of the registered
2        agent must be reported to the Illinois Commerce
3        Commission within 30 days of such change.
4            (G) The Illinois Commerce Commission shall
5        maintain the list of registered agents for service for
6        each wireless telephone service provider on the
7        Commission's website. The Commission may consult with
8        wireless telephone service providers and the Circuit
9        Court Clerks on the manner in which this information
10        is provided and displayed.
11    (c) Relevant factors; findings.
12        (1) In determining whether to grant a specific remedy,
13    other than payment of support, the court shall consider
14    relevant factors, including, but not limited to, the
15    following:
16            (i) the nature, frequency, severity, pattern, and
17        consequences of the respondent's past abuse of the
18        petitioner or any family or household member,
19        including the concealment of his or her location in
20        order to evade service of process or notice, and the
21        likelihood of danger of future abuse to petitioner or
22        any member of petitioner's or respondent's family or
23        household; and
24            (ii) the danger that any minor child will be
25        abused or neglected or improperly relocated from the
26        jurisdiction, improperly concealed within the State,

 

 

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1        or improperly separated from the child's primary
2        caretaker.
3        (2) In comparing relative hardships resulting to the
4    parties from loss of possession of the family home, the
5    court shall consider relevant factors, including, but not
6    limited to, the following:
7            (i) availability, accessibility, cost, safety,
8        adequacy, location, and other characteristics of
9        alternate housing for each party and any minor child
10        or dependent adult in the party's care;
11            (ii) the effect on the party's employment; and
12            (iii) the effect on the relationship of the party,
13        and any minor child or dependent adult in the party's
14        care, to family, school, church, and community.
15        (3) Subject to the exceptions set forth in paragraph
16    (4) of this subsection (c), the court shall make its
17    findings in an official record or in writing, and shall at
18    a minimum set forth the following:
19            (i) That the court has considered the applicable
20        relevant factors described in paragraphs (1) and (2)
21        of this subsection (c).
22            (ii) Whether the conduct or actions of respondent,
23        unless prohibited, will likely cause irreparable harm
24        or continued abuse.
25            (iii) Whether it is necessary to grant the
26        requested relief in order to protect petitioner or

 

 

SB3171- 374 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        other alleged abused persons.
2        (4) (Blank).
3        (5) Never married parties. No rights or
4    responsibilities for a minor child born outside of
5    marriage attach to a putative father until a father and
6    child relationship has been established under the Illinois
7    Parentage Act of 1984, the Illinois Parentage Act of 2015,
8    the Illinois Public Aid Code, Section 12 of the Vital
9    Records Act, the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, the Probate
10    Act of 1975, the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act,
11    the Expedited Child Support Act of 1990, any judicial,
12    administrative, or other act of another state or
13    territory, any other statute of this State, or by any
14    foreign nation establishing the father and child
15    relationship, any other proceeding substantially in
16    conformity with the federal Personal Responsibility and
17    Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996, or when both
18    parties appeared in open court or at an administrative
19    hearing acknowledging under oath or admitting by
20    affirmation the existence of a father and child
21    relationship. Absent such an adjudication, no putative
22    father shall be granted temporary allocation of parental
23    responsibilities, including parenting time with the minor
24    child, or physical care and possession of the minor child,
25    nor shall an order of payment for support of the minor
26    child be entered.

 

 

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1    (d) Balance of hardships; findings. If the court finds
2that the balance of hardships does not support the granting of
3a remedy governed by paragraph (2), (3), (10), (11), or (16) of
4subsection (b) of this Section, which may require such
5balancing, the court's findings shall so indicate and shall
6include a finding as to whether granting the remedy will
7result in hardship to respondent that would substantially
8outweigh the hardship to petitioner from denial of the remedy.
9The findings shall be an official record or in writing.
10    (e) Denial of remedies. Denial of any remedy shall not be
11based, in whole or in part, on evidence that:
12        (1) respondent has cause for any use of force, unless
13    that cause satisfies the standards for justifiable use of
14    force provided by Article 7 of the Criminal Code of 2012;
15        (2) respondent was voluntarily intoxicated;
16        (3) petitioner acted in self-defense or defense of
17    another, provided that, if petitioner utilized force, such
18    force was justifiable under Article 7 of the Criminal Code
19    of 2012;
20        (4) petitioner did not act in self-defense or defense
21    of another;
22        (5) petitioner left the residence or household to
23    avoid further abuse by respondent;
24        (6) petitioner did not leave the residence or
25    household to avoid further abuse by respondent; or
26        (7) conduct by any family or household member excused

 

 

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1    the abuse by respondent, unless that same conduct would
2    have excused such abuse if the parties had not been family
3    or household members.
4(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21;
5102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-1065, eff. 5-11-25.)
 
6    (725 ILCS 5/112A-14.7)
7    Sec. 112A-14.7. Stalking no contact order; remedies.
8    (a) The court may order any of the remedies listed in this
9Section. The remedies listed in this Section shall be in
10addition to other civil or criminal remedies available to
11petitioner. A stalking no contact order shall order one or
12more of the following:
13        (1) prohibit the respondent from threatening to commit
14    or committing stalking;
15        (2) order the respondent not to have any contact with
16    the petitioner or a third person specifically named by the
17    court;
18        (3) prohibit the respondent from knowingly coming
19    within, or knowingly remaining within a specified distance
20    of the petitioner or the petitioner's residence, school,
21    daycare, or place of employment, or any specified place
22    frequented by the petitioner; however, the court may order
23    the respondent to stay away from the respondent's own
24    residence, school, or place of employment only if the
25    respondent has been provided actual notice of the

 

 

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1    opportunity to appear and be heard on the petition;
2        (4) prohibit the respondent from possessing a Firearm
3    Owners Identification Card, or possessing or buying
4    firearms; and
5        (5) order other injunctive relief the court determines
6    to be necessary to protect the petitioner or third party
7    specifically named by the court.
8    (b) When the petitioner and the respondent attend the same
9public, private, or non-public elementary, middle, or high
10school, the court when issuing a stalking no contact order and
11providing relief shall consider the severity of the act, any
12continuing physical danger or emotional distress to the
13petitioner, the educational rights guaranteed to the
14petitioner and respondent under federal and State law, the
15availability of a transfer of the respondent to another
16school, a change of placement or a change of program of the
17respondent, the expense, difficulty, and educational
18disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the
19respondent to another school, and any other relevant facts of
20the case. The court may order that the respondent not attend
21the public, private, or non-public elementary, middle, or high
22school attended by the petitioner, order that the respondent
23accept a change of placement or program, as determined by the
24school district or private or non-public school, or place
25restrictions on the respondent's movements within the school
26attended by the petitioner. The respondent bears the burden of

 

 

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1proving by a preponderance of the evidence that a transfer,
2change of placement, or change of program of the respondent is
3not available. The respondent also bears the burden of
4production with respect to the expense, difficulty, and
5educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of
6the respondent to another school. A transfer, change of
7placement, or change of program is not unavailable to the
8respondent solely on the ground that the respondent does not
9agree with the school district's or private or non-public
10school's transfer, change of placement, or change of program
11or solely on the ground that the respondent fails or refuses to
12consent to or otherwise does not take an action required to
13effectuate a transfer, change of placement, or change of
14program. When a court orders a respondent to stay away from the
15public, private, or non-public school attended by the
16petitioner and the respondent requests a transfer to another
17attendance center within the respondent's school district or
18private or non-public school, the school district or private
19or non-public school shall have sole discretion to determine
20the attendance center to which the respondent is transferred.
21If the court order results in a transfer of the minor
22respondent to another attendance center, a change in the
23respondent's placement, or a change of the respondent's
24program, the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of the
25respondent is responsible for transportation and other costs
26associated with the transfer or change.

 

 

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1    (c) The court may order the parents, guardian, or legal
2custodian of a minor respondent to take certain actions or to
3refrain from taking certain actions to ensure that the
4respondent complies with the order. If the court orders a
5transfer of the respondent to another school, the parents,
6guardian, or legal custodian of the respondent are responsible
7for transportation and other costs associated with the change
8of school by the respondent.
9    (d) The court shall not hold a school district or private
10or non-public school or any of its employees in civil or
11criminal contempt unless the school district or private or
12non-public school has been allowed to intervene.
13    (e) The court may hold the parents, guardian, or legal
14custodian of a minor respondent in civil or criminal contempt
15for a violation of any provision of any order entered under
16this Article for conduct of the minor respondent in violation
17of this Article if the parents, guardian, or legal custodian
18directed, encouraged, or assisted the respondent minor in the
19conduct.
20    (f) Monetary damages are not recoverable as a remedy.
21    (g) If the stalking no contact order prohibits the
22respondent from possessing a Firearm Owner's Identification
23Card, or possessing or buying firearms; the court shall
24confiscate the respondent's firearms and firearm ammunition    
25Firearm Owner's Identification Card and immediately return the
26card to the Illinois State Police Firearm Owner's

 

 

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1Identification Card Office.
2(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)
 
3    (725 ILCS 5/112A-17.5)
4    Sec. 112A-17.5. Ex parte protective orders.
5    (a) The petitioner may request expedited consideration of
6the petition for an ex parte protective order. The court shall
7consider the request on an expedited basis without requiring
8the respondent's presence or requiring notice to the
9respondent.
10    (b) Issuance of ex parte protective orders in cases
11involving domestic violence. An ex parte domestic violence
12order of protection shall be issued if petitioner satisfies
13the requirements of this subsection (b) for one or more of the
14requested remedies. For each remedy requested, petitioner
15shall establish that:
16        (1) the court has jurisdiction under Section 112A-9 of
17    this Code;
18        (2) the requirements of subsection (a) of Section
19    112A-11.5 of this Code are satisfied; and
20        (3) there is good cause to grant the remedy,
21    regardless of prior service of process or notice upon the
22    respondent, because:
23            (A) for the remedy of prohibition of abuse
24        described in paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of
25        Section 112A-14 of this Code; stay away order and

 

 

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1        additional prohibitions described in paragraph (3) of
2        subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of this Code;
3        removal or concealment of minor child described in
4        paragraph (8) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of
5        this Code; order to appear described in paragraph (9)
6        of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of this Code;
7        physical care and possession of the minor child
8        described in paragraph (5) of subsection (b) of
9        Section 112A-14 of this Code; protection of property
10        described in paragraph (11) of subsection (b) of
11        Section 112A-14 of this Code; prohibition of entry
12        described in paragraph (14) of subsection (b) of
13        Section 112A-14 of this Code; prohibition of firearm
14        possession described in paragraph (14.5) of subsection
15        (b) of Section 112A-14 of this Code; prohibition of
16        access to records described in paragraph (15) of
17        subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of this Code;
18        injunctive relief described in paragraph (16) of
19        subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of this Code; and
20        telephone services described in paragraph (18) of
21        subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of this Code, the
22        harm which that remedy is intended to prevent would be
23        likely to occur if the respondent were given any prior
24        notice, or greater notice than was actually given, of
25        the petitioner's efforts to obtain judicial relief;
26            (B) for the remedy of grant of exclusive

 

 

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1        possession of residence described in paragraph (2) of
2        subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of this Code; the
3        immediate danger of further abuse of the petitioner by
4        the respondent, if the petitioner chooses or had
5        chosen to remain in the residence or household while
6        the respondent was given any prior notice or greater
7        notice than was actually given of the petitioner's
8        efforts to obtain judicial relief outweighs the
9        hardships to the respondent of an emergency order
10        granting the petitioner exclusive possession of the
11        residence or household; and the remedy shall not be
12        denied because the petitioner has or could obtain
13        temporary shelter elsewhere while prior notice is
14        given to the respondent, unless the hardship to the
15        respondent from exclusion from the home substantially
16        outweigh the hardship to the petitioner; or
17            (C) for the remedy of possession of personal
18        property described in paragraph (10) of subsection (b)
19        of Section 112A-14 of this Code; improper disposition
20        of the personal property would be likely to occur if
21        the respondent were given any prior notice, or greater
22        notice than was actually given, of the petitioner's
23        efforts to obtain judicial relief or the petitioner
24        has an immediate and pressing need for the possession
25        of that property.
26    An ex parte domestic violence order of protection may not

 

 

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1include the counseling, custody, or payment of support or
2monetary compensation remedies provided by paragraphs (4),
3(12), (13), and (16) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of
4this Code.
5    (c) Issuance of ex parte civil no contact order in cases
6involving sexual offenses. An ex parte civil no contact order
7shall be issued if the petitioner establishes that:
8        (1) the court has jurisdiction under Section 112A-9 of
9    this Code;
10        (2) the requirements of subsection (a) of Section
11    112A-11.5 of this Code are satisfied; and
12        (3) there is good cause to grant the remedy,
13    regardless of prior service of process or of notice upon
14    the respondent, because the harm which that remedy is
15    intended to prevent would be likely to occur if the
16    respondent were given any prior notice, or greater notice
17    than was actually given, of the petitioner's efforts to
18    obtain judicial relief.
19    The court may order any of the remedies under Section
20112A-14.5 of this Code.
21    (d) Issuance of ex parte stalking no contact order in
22cases involving stalking offenses. An ex parte stalking no
23contact order shall be issued if the petitioner establishes
24that:
25        (1) the court has jurisdiction under Section 112A-9 of
26    this Code;

 

 

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1        (2) the requirements of subsection (a) of Section
2    112A-11.5 of this Code are satisfied; and
3        (3) there is good cause to grant the remedy,
4    regardless of prior service of process or of notice upon
5    the respondent, because the harm which that remedy is
6    intended to prevent would be likely to occur if the
7    respondent were given any prior notice, or greater notice
8    than was actually given, of the petitioner's efforts to
9    obtain judicial relief.
10    The court may order any of the remedies under Section
11112A-14.7 of this Code.
12    (e) Issuance of ex parte protective orders on court
13holidays and evenings.
14    When the court is unavailable at the close of business,
15the petitioner may file a petition for an ex parte protective
16order before any available circuit judge or associate judge
17who may grant relief under this Article. If the judge finds
18that petitioner has satisfied the prerequisites in subsection
19(b), (c), or (d) of this Section, the judge shall issue an ex
20parte protective order.
21    The chief judge of the circuit court may designate for
22each county in the circuit at least one judge to be reasonably
23available to issue orally, by telephone, by facsimile, or
24otherwise, an ex parte protective order at all times, whether
25or not the court is in session.
26    The judge who issued the order under this Section shall

 

 

SB3171- 385 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1promptly communicate or convey the order to the sheriff to
2facilitate the entry of the order into the Law Enforcement
3Agencies Data System by the Illinois State Police under
4Section 112A-28 of this Code. Any order issued under this
5Section and any documentation in support of it shall be
6certified on the next court day to the appropriate court. The
7clerk of that court shall immediately assign a case number,
8file the petition, order, and other documents with the court
9and enter the order of record and file it with the sheriff for
10service under subsection (f) of this Section. Failure to
11comply with the requirements of this subsection (e) shall not
12affect the validity of the order.
13    (f) Service of ex parte protective order on respondent.
14        (1) If an ex parte protective order is entered at the
15    time a summons or arrest warrant is issued for the
16    criminal charge, the petition for the protective order,
17    any supporting affidavits, if any, and the ex parte
18    protective order that has been issued shall be served with
19    the summons or arrest warrant. The enforcement of a
20    protective order under Section 112A-23 of this Code shall
21    not be affected by the lack of service or delivery,
22    provided the requirements of subsection (a) of Section
23    112A-23 of this Code are otherwise met.
24        (2) If an ex parte protective order is entered after a
25    summons or arrest warrant is issued and before the
26    respondent makes an initial appearance in the criminal

 

 

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1    case, the summons shall be in the form prescribed by
2    subsection (d) of Supreme Court Rule 101, except that it
3    shall require respondent to answer or appear within 7 days
4    and shall be accompanied by the petition for the
5    protective order, any supporting affidavits, if any, and
6    the ex parte protective order that has been issued.
7        (3) If an ex parte protective order is entered after
8    the respondent has been served notice of a petition for a
9    final protective order and the respondent has requested a
10    continuance to respond to the petition, the ex parte
11    protective order shall be served: (A) in open court if the
12    respondent is present at the proceeding at which the order
13    was entered; or (B) by summons in the form prescribed by
14    subsection (d) of Supreme Court Rule 101.
15        (4) No fee shall be charged for service of summons.
16        (5) The summons shall be served by the sheriff or
17    other law enforcement officer at the earliest time and
18    shall take precedence over other summonses except those of
19    a similar emergency nature. Special process servers may be
20    appointed at any time, and their designation shall not
21    affect the responsibilities and authority of the sheriff
22    or other official process servers. In a county with a
23    population over 3,000,000, a special process server may
24    not be appointed if an ex parte protective order grants
25    the surrender of a child, the surrender of a firearm or
26    Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or the exclusive

 

 

SB3171- 387 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    possession of a shared residence. Process may be served in
2    court.
3    (g) Upon 7 days' notice to the petitioner, or a shorter
4notice period as the court may prescribe, a respondent subject
5to an ex parte protective order may appear and petition the
6court to re-hear the petition. Any petition to re-hear shall
7be verified and shall allege the following:
8        (1) that respondent did not receive prior notice of
9    the initial hearing in which the ex parte protective order
10    was entered under Section 112A-17.5 of this Code; and
11        (2) that respondent had a meritorious defense to the
12    order or any of its remedies or that the order or any of
13    its remedies was not authorized under this Article.
14    The verified petition and affidavit shall set forth the
15evidence of the meritorious defense that will be presented at
16a hearing. If the court finds that the evidence presented at
17the hearing on the petition establishes a meritorious defense
18by a preponderance of the evidence, the court may decide to
19vacate the protective order or modify the remedies.
20    (h) If the ex parte protective order granted petitioner
21exclusive possession of the residence and the petition of
22respondent seeks to re-open or vacate that grant, the court
23shall set a date for hearing within 14 days on all issues
24relating to exclusive possession. Under no circumstances shall
25a court continue a hearing concerning exclusive possession
26beyond the 14th day except by agreement of the petitioner and

 

 

SB3171- 388 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1the respondent. Other issues raised by the pleadings may be
2consolidated for the hearing if the petitioner, the
3respondent, and the court do not object.
4    (i) Duration of ex parte protective order. An ex parte
5order shall remain in effect until the court considers the
6request for a final protective order after notice has been
7served on the respondent or a default final protective order
8is entered, whichever occurs first. If a court date is
9scheduled for the issuance of a default protective order and
10the petitioner fails to personally appear or appear through
11counsel or the prosecuting attorney, the petition shall be
12dismissed and the ex parte order terminated.
13(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)
 
14    Section 90. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by
15changing Sections 3-2-10.5, 5-5-3, 5-5-3.2, and 5-6-3 as
16follows:
 
17    (730 ILCS 5/3-2-10.5)
18    Sec. 3-2-10.5. Retiring security employees and parole
19agents; purchase of service firearm and badge. The Director
20shall establish a program to allow a security employee or
21parole agent of the Department who is honorably retiring in
22good standing to purchase either one or both of the following:
23(1) any badge previously issued to the security employee or
24parole agent by the Department; or (2) if the security

 

 

SB3171- 389 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1employee or parole agent has a currently valid Firearm Owner's
2Identification Card, the service firearm issued or previously
3issued to the security employee or parole agent by the
4Department. The badge must be permanently and conspicuously
5marked in such a manner that the individual who possesses the
6badge is not mistaken for an actively serving law enforcement
7officer. The cost of the firearm shall be the replacement
8value of the firearm and not the firearm's fair market value.
9(Source: P.A. 102-719, eff. 5-6-22.)
 
10    (730 ILCS 5/5-5-3)
11    Sec. 5-5-3. Disposition.
12    (a) (Blank).
13    (b) (Blank).
14    (c)(1) (Blank).
15    (2) A period of probation, a term of periodic imprisonment
16or conditional discharge shall not be imposed for the
17following offenses. The court shall sentence the offender to
18not less than the minimum term of imprisonment set forth in
19this Code for the following offenses, and may order a fine or
20restitution or both in conjunction with such term of
21imprisonment:
22        (A) First degree murder.
23        (B) Attempted first degree murder.
24        (C) A Class X felony.
25        (D) A violation of Section 401.1 or 407 of the

 

 

SB3171- 390 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or a violation of
2    subdivision (c)(1.5) of Section 401 of that Act which
3    relates to more than 5 grams of a substance containing
4    fentanyl or an analog thereof.
5        (D-5) A violation of subdivision (c)(1) of Section 401
6    of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act which relates to
7    3 or more grams of a substance containing heroin or an
8    analog thereof.
9        (E) (Blank).
10        (F) A Class 1 or greater felony if the offender had
11    been convicted of a Class 1 or greater felony, including
12    any state or federal conviction for an offense that
13    contained, at the time it was committed, the same elements
14    as an offense now (the date of the offense committed after
15    the prior Class 1 or greater felony) classified as a Class
16    1 or greater felony, within 10 years of the date on which
17    the offender committed the offense for which he or she is
18    being sentenced, except as otherwise provided in Section
19    40-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act.
20        (F-3) A Class 2 or greater felony sex offense or
21    felony firearm offense if the offender had been convicted
22    of a Class 2 or greater felony, including any state or
23    federal conviction for an offense that contained, at the
24    time it was committed, the same elements as an offense now
25    (the date of the offense committed after the prior Class 2
26    or greater felony) classified as a Class 2 or greater

 

 

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1    felony, within 10 years of the date on which the offender
2    committed the offense for which he or she is being
3    sentenced, except as otherwise provided in Section 40-10
4    of the Substance Use Disorder Act.
5        (F-5) A violation of Section 24-1, 24-1.1, or 24-1.6
6    of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012
7    for which imprisonment is prescribed in those Sections.
8        (G) Residential burglary, except as otherwise provided
9    in Section 40-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act.
10        (H) Criminal sexual assault.
11        (I) Aggravated battery of a senior citizen as
12    described in Section 12-4.6 or subdivision (a)(4) of
13    Section 12-3.05 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
14    Criminal Code of 2012.
15        (J) A forcible felony if the offense was related to
16    the activities of an organized gang.
17        Before July 1, 1994, for the purposes of this
18    paragraph, "organized gang" means an association of 5 or
19    more persons, with an established hierarchy, that
20    encourages members of the association to perpetrate crimes
21    or provides support to the members of the association who
22    do commit crimes.
23        Beginning July 1, 1994, for the purposes of this
24    paragraph, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it
25    in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus
26    Prevention Act.

 

 

SB3171- 392 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        (K) Vehicular hijacking.
2        (L) A second or subsequent conviction for the offense
3    of hate crime when the underlying offense upon which the
4    hate crime is based is felony aggravated assault or felony
5    mob action.
6        (M) A second or subsequent conviction for the offense
7    of institutional vandalism if the damage to the property
8    exceeds $300.
9        (N) A Class 3 felony violation of paragraph (1) of
10    subsection (a) of Section 2 of the Firearm Owners
11    Identification Card Act committed before the effective
12    date of this amendatory Act of the 104th General Assembly.
13        (O) A violation of Section 12-6.1 or 12-6.5 of the
14    Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.
15        (P) A violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5),
16    or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the
17    Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.
18        (P-5) A violation of paragraph (6) of subsection (a)
19    of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
20    Criminal Code of 2012 if the victim is a household or
21    family member of the defendant.
22        (P-6) A violation of paragraph (2) of subsection (b)
23    of Section 11-20.4 of the Criminal Code of 2012.
24        (Q) A violation of subsection (b) or (b-5) of Section
25    20-1, Section 20-1.2, or Section 20-1.3 of the Criminal
26    Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

 

 

SB3171- 393 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        (R) A violation of Section 24-3A of the Criminal Code
2    of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.
3        (S) (Blank).
4        (T) (Blank).
5        (U) A second or subsequent violation of Section 6-303
6    of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed while his or her
7    driver's license, permit, or privilege was revoked because
8    of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961
9    or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of
10    reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of
11    another state.
12        (V) A violation of paragraph (4) of subsection (c) of
13    Section 11-20.1B or paragraph (4) of subsection (c) of
14    Section 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, or paragraph
15    (6) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal
16    Code of 2012 when the victim is under 13 years of age and
17    the defendant has previously been convicted under the laws
18    of this State or any other state of the offense of child
19    sexual abuse material or child pornography, aggravated
20    child pornography, aggravated criminal sexual abuse,
21    aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal
22    sexual assault of a child, or any of the offenses formerly
23    known as rape, deviate sexual assault, indecent liberties
24    with a child, or aggravated indecent liberties with a
25    child where the victim was under the age of 18 years or an
26    offense that is substantially equivalent to those

 

 

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1    offenses.
2        (V-5) A violation of paragraph (1) of subsection (b)
3    of Section 11-20.4 of the Criminal Code of 2012 when the
4    purported child depicted is indistinguishable from an
5    actual child under 13 years of age and the defendant has
6    previously been convicted under the laws of this State or
7    any other state of the offense of child pornography,
8    aggravated child pornography, aggravated criminal sexual
9    abuse, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory
10    criminal sexual assault of a child, or any of the offenses
11    formerly known as rape, deviate sexual assault, indecent
12    liberties with a child, or aggravated indecent liberties
13    with a child if the victim was under the age of 18 years or
14    an offense that is substantially equivalent to those
15    offenses.
16        (W) A violation of Section 24-3.5 of the Criminal Code
17    of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.
18        (X) A violation of subsection (a) of Section 31-1a of
19    the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.
20        (Y) A conviction for unlawful possession of a firearm
21    by a street gang member when the firearm was loaded or
22    contained firearm ammunition.
23        (Z) A Class 1 felony committed while he or she was
24    serving a term of probation or conditional discharge for a
25    felony.
26        (AA) Theft of property exceeding $500,000 and not

 

 

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1    exceeding $1,000,000 in value.
2        (BB) Laundering of criminally derived property of a
3    value exceeding $500,000.
4        (CC) Knowingly selling, offering for sale, holding for
5    sale, or using 2,000 or more counterfeit items or
6    counterfeit items having a retail value in the aggregate
7    of $500,000 or more.
8        (DD) A conviction for aggravated assault under
9    paragraph (6) of subsection (c) of Section 12-2 of the
10    Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 if the
11    firearm is aimed toward the person against whom the
12    firearm is being used.
13        (EE) A conviction for a violation of paragraph (2) of
14    subsection (a) of Section 24-3B of the Criminal Code of
15    2012.
16    (3) (Blank).
17    (4) A minimum term of imprisonment of not less than 10
18consecutive days or 30 days of community service shall be
19imposed for a violation of paragraph (c) of Section 6-303 of
20the Illinois Vehicle Code.
21    (4.1) (Blank).
22    (4.2) Except as provided in paragraphs (4.3) and (4.8) of
23this subsection (c), a minimum of 100 hours of community
24service shall be imposed for a second violation of Section
256-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.
26    (4.3) A minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days or 300

 

 

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1hours of community service, as determined by the court, shall
2be imposed for a second violation of subsection (c) of Section
36-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.
4    (4.4) Except as provided in paragraphs (4.5), (4.6), and
5(4.9) of this subsection (c), a minimum term of imprisonment
6of 30 days or 300 hours of community service, as determined by
7the court, shall be imposed for a third or subsequent
8violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. The
9court may give credit toward the fulfillment of community
10service hours for participation in activities and treatment as
11determined by court services.
12    (4.5) A minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days shall be
13imposed for a third violation of subsection (c) of Section
146-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.
15    (4.6) Except as provided in paragraph (4.10) of this
16subsection (c), a minimum term of imprisonment of 180 days
17shall be imposed for a fourth or subsequent violation of
18subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.
19    (4.7) A minimum term of imprisonment of not less than 30
20consecutive days, or 300 hours of community service, shall be
21imposed for a violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303
22of the Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (b-5)
23of that Section.
24    (4.8) A mandatory prison sentence shall be imposed for a
25second violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the
26Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (c-5) of that

 

 

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1Section. The person's driving privileges shall be revoked for
2a period of not less than 5 years from the date of his or her
3release from prison.
4    (4.9) A mandatory prison sentence of not less than 4 and
5not more than 15 years shall be imposed for a third violation
6of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle
7Code, as provided in subsection (d-2.5) of that Section. The
8person's driving privileges shall be revoked for the remainder
9of his or her life.
10    (4.10) A mandatory prison sentence for a Class 1 felony
11shall be imposed, and the person shall be eligible for an
12extended term sentence, for a fourth or subsequent violation
13of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle
14Code, as provided in subsection (d-3.5) of that Section. The
15person's driving privileges shall be revoked for the remainder
16of his or her life.
17    (5) The court may sentence a corporation or unincorporated
18association convicted of any offense to:
19        (A) a period of conditional discharge;
20        (B) a fine;
21        (C) make restitution to the victim under Section 5-5-6
22    of this Code.
23    (5.1) In addition to any other penalties imposed, and
24except as provided in paragraph (5.2) or (5.3), a person
25convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the
26Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license,

 

 

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1permit, or privileges suspended for at least 90 days but not
2more than one year, if the violation resulted in damage to the
3property of another person.
4    (5.2) In addition to any other penalties imposed, and
5except as provided in paragraph (5.3), a person convicted of
6violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois
7Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit,
8or privileges suspended for at least 180 days but not more than
92 years, if the violation resulted in injury to another
10person.
11    (5.3) In addition to any other penalties imposed, a person
12convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the
13Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license,
14permit, or privileges suspended for 2 years, if the violation
15resulted in the death of another person.
16    (5.4) In addition to any other penalties imposed, a person
17convicted of violating Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle
18Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or
19privileges suspended for 3 months and until he or she has paid
20a reinstatement fee of $100.
21    (5.5) In addition to any other penalties imposed, a person
22convicted of violating Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle
23Code during a period in which his or her driver's license,
24permit, or privileges were suspended for a previous violation
25of that Section shall have his or her driver's license,
26permit, or privileges suspended for an additional 6 months

 

 

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1after the expiration of the original 3-month suspension and
2until he or she has paid a reinstatement fee of $100.
3    (6) (Blank).
4    (7) (Blank).
5    (8) (Blank).
6    (9) A defendant convicted of a second or subsequent
7offense of ritualized abuse of a child may be sentenced to a
8term of natural life imprisonment.
9    (10) (Blank).
10    (11) The court shall impose a minimum fine of $1,000 for a
11first offense and $2,000 for a second or subsequent offense
12upon a person convicted of or placed on supervision for
13battery when the individual harmed was a sports official or
14coach at any level of competition and the act causing harm to
15the sports official or coach occurred within an athletic
16facility or within the immediate vicinity of the athletic
17facility at which the sports official or coach was an active
18participant of the athletic contest held at the athletic
19facility. For the purposes of this paragraph (11), "sports
20official" means a person at an athletic contest who enforces
21the rules of the contest, such as an umpire or referee;
22"athletic facility" means an indoor or outdoor playing field
23or recreational area where sports activities are conducted;
24and "coach" means a person recognized as a coach by the
25sanctioning authority that conducted the sporting event.
26    (12) A person may not receive a disposition of court

 

 

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1supervision for a violation of Section 5-16 of the Boat
2Registration and Safety Act if that person has previously
3received a disposition of court supervision for a violation of
4that Section.
5    (13) A person convicted of or placed on court supervision
6for an assault or aggravated assault when the victim and the
7offender are family or household members as defined in Section
8103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or convicted
9of domestic battery or aggravated domestic battery may be
10required to attend a Partner Abuse Intervention Program under
11protocols set forth by the Illinois Department of Human
12Services under such terms and conditions imposed by the court.
13The costs of such classes shall be paid by the offender.
14    (d) In any case in which a sentence originally imposed is
15vacated, the case shall be remanded to the trial court. The
16trial court shall hold a hearing under Section 5-4-1 of this
17Code which may include evidence of the defendant's life, moral
18character and occupation during the time since the original
19sentence was passed. The trial court shall then impose
20sentence upon the defendant. The trial court may impose any
21sentence which could have been imposed at the original trial
22subject to Section 5-5-4 of this Code. If a sentence is vacated
23on appeal or on collateral attack due to the failure of the
24trier of fact at trial to determine beyond a reasonable doubt
25the existence of a fact (other than a prior conviction)
26necessary to increase the punishment for the offense beyond

 

 

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1the statutory maximum otherwise applicable, either the
2defendant may be re-sentenced to a term within the range
3otherwise provided or, if the State files notice of its
4intention to again seek the extended sentence, the defendant
5shall be afforded a new trial.
6    (e) In cases where prosecution for aggravated criminal
7sexual abuse under Section 11-1.60 or 12-16 of the Criminal
8Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 results in conviction
9of a defendant who was a family member of the victim at the
10time of the commission of the offense, the court shall
11consider the safety and welfare of the victim and may impose a
12sentence of probation only where:
13        (1) the court finds (A) or (B) or both are
14    appropriate:
15            (A) the defendant is willing to undergo a court
16        approved counseling program for a minimum duration of
17        2 years; or
18            (B) the defendant is willing to participate in a
19        court approved plan, including, but not limited to,
20        the defendant's:
21                (i) removal from the household;
22                (ii) restricted contact with the victim;
23                (iii) continued financial support of the
24            family;
25                (iv) restitution for harm done to the victim;
26            and

 

 

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1                (v) compliance with any other measures that
2            the court may deem appropriate; and
3        (2) the court orders the defendant to pay for the
4    victim's counseling services, to the extent that the court
5    finds, after considering the defendant's income and
6    assets, that the defendant is financially capable of
7    paying for such services, if the victim was under 18 years
8    of age at the time the offense was committed and requires
9    counseling as a result of the offense.
10    Probation may be revoked or modified pursuant to Section
115-6-4; except where the court determines at the hearing that
12the defendant violated a condition of his or her probation
13restricting contact with the victim or other family members or
14commits another offense with the victim or other family
15members, the court shall revoke the defendant's probation and
16impose a term of imprisonment.
17    For the purposes of this Section, "family member" and
18"victim" shall have the meanings ascribed to them in Section
1911-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.
20    (f) (Blank).
21    (g) Whenever a defendant is convicted of an offense under
22Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14,
2311-14.3, 11-14.4 except for an offense that involves keeping a
24place of commercial sexual exploitation of a child, 11-15,
2511-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1,
2611-19.2, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the

 

 

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1Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the
2defendant shall undergo medical testing to determine whether
3the defendant has any sexually transmissible disease,
4including a test for infection with human immunodeficiency
5virus (HIV) or any other identified causative agent of
6acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Any such medical
7test shall be performed only by appropriately licensed medical
8practitioners and may include an analysis of any bodily fluids
9as well as an examination of the defendant's person. Except as
10otherwise provided by law, the results of such test shall be
11kept strictly confidential by all medical personnel involved
12in the testing and must be personally delivered in a sealed
13envelope to the judge of the court in which the conviction was
14entered for the judge's inspection in camera. Acting in
15accordance with the best interests of the victim and the
16public, the judge shall have the discretion to determine to
17whom, if anyone, the results of the testing may be revealed.
18The court shall notify the defendant of the test results. The
19court shall also notify the victim if requested by the victim,
20and if the victim is under the age of 15 and if requested by
21the victim's parents or legal guardian, the court shall notify
22the victim's parents or legal guardian of the test results.
23The court shall provide information on the availability of HIV
24testing and counseling at Department of Public Health
25facilities to all parties to whom the results of the testing
26are revealed and shall direct the State's Attorney to provide

 

 

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1the information to the victim when possible. The court shall
2order that the cost of any such test shall be paid by the
3county and may be taxed as costs against the convicted
4defendant.
5    (g-5) When an inmate is tested for an airborne
6communicable disease, as determined by the Illinois Department
7of Public Health, including, but not limited to, tuberculosis,
8the results of the test shall be personally delivered by the
9warden or his or her designee in a sealed envelope to the judge
10of the court in which the inmate must appear for the judge's
11inspection in camera if requested by the judge. Acting in
12accordance with the best interests of those in the courtroom,
13the judge shall have the discretion to determine what if any
14precautions need to be taken to prevent transmission of the
15disease in the courtroom.
16    (h) Whenever a defendant is convicted of an offense under
17Section 1 or 2 of the Hypodermic Syringes and Needles Act, the
18defendant shall undergo medical testing to determine whether
19the defendant has been exposed to human immunodeficiency virus
20(HIV) or any other identified causative agent of acquired
21immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Except as otherwise provided
22by law, the results of such test shall be kept strictly
23confidential by all medical personnel involved in the testing
24and must be personally delivered in a sealed envelope to the
25judge of the court in which the conviction was entered for the
26judge's inspection in camera. Acting in accordance with the

 

 

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1best interests of the public, the judge shall have the
2discretion to determine to whom, if anyone, the results of the
3testing may be revealed. The court shall notify the defendant
4of a positive test showing an infection with the human
5immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The court shall provide
6information on the availability of HIV testing and counseling
7at Department of Public Health facilities to all parties to
8whom the results of the testing are revealed and shall direct
9the State's Attorney to provide the information to the victim
10when possible. The court shall order that the cost of any such
11test shall be paid by the county and may be taxed as costs
12against the convicted defendant.
13    (i) All fines and penalties imposed under this Section for
14any violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois
15Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and
16any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a
17similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and
18disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under the Criminal
19and Traffic Assessment Act.
20    (j) In cases when prosecution for any violation of Section
2111-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-8, 11-9,
2211-11, 11-14, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17,
2311-17.1, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1,
2411-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-20.4, 11-21, 11-30, 11-40, 12-13, 12-14,
2512-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
26Criminal Code of 2012, any violation of the Illinois

 

 

SB3171- 406 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1Controlled Substances Act, any violation of the Cannabis
2Control Act, or any violation of the Methamphetamine Control
3and Community Protection Act results in conviction, a
4disposition of court supervision, or an order of probation
5granted under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section
6410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70
7of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act of
8a defendant, the court shall determine whether the defendant
9is employed by a facility or center as defined under the Child
10Care Act of 1969, a public or private elementary or secondary
11school, or otherwise works with children under 18 years of age
12on a daily basis. When a defendant is so employed, the court
13shall order the Clerk of the Court to send a copy of the
14judgment of conviction or order of supervision or probation to
15the defendant's employer by certified mail. If the employer of
16the defendant is a school, the Clerk of the Court shall direct
17the mailing of a copy of the judgment of conviction or order of
18supervision or probation to the appropriate regional
19superintendent of schools. The regional superintendent of
20schools shall notify the State Board of Education of any
21notification under this subsection.
22    (j-5) A defendant at least 17 years of age who is convicted
23of a felony and who has not been previously convicted of a
24misdemeanor or felony and who is sentenced to a term of
25imprisonment in the Illinois Department of Corrections shall
26as a condition of his or her sentence be required by the court

 

 

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1to attend educational courses designed to prepare the
2defendant for a high school diploma and to work toward a high
3school diploma or to work toward passing high school
4equivalency testing or to work toward completing a vocational
5training program offered by the Department of Corrections. If
6a defendant fails to complete the educational training
7required by his or her sentence during the term of
8incarceration, the Prisoner Review Board shall, as a condition
9of mandatory supervised release, require the defendant, at his
10or her own expense, to pursue a course of study toward a high
11school diploma or passage of high school equivalency testing.
12The Prisoner Review Board shall revoke the mandatory
13supervised release of a defendant who wilfully fails to comply
14with this subsection (j-5) upon his or her release from
15confinement in a penal institution while serving a mandatory
16supervised release term; however, the inability of the
17defendant after making a good faith effort to obtain financial
18aid or pay for the educational training shall not be deemed a
19wilful failure to comply. The Prisoner Review Board shall
20recommit the defendant whose mandatory supervised release term
21has been revoked under this subsection (j-5) as provided in
22Section 3-3-9. This subsection (j-5) does not apply to a
23defendant who has a high school diploma or has successfully
24passed high school equivalency testing. This subsection (j-5)
25does not apply to a defendant who is determined by the court to
26be a person with a developmental disability or otherwise

 

 

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1mentally incapable of completing the educational or vocational
2program.
3    (k) (Blank).
4    (l)(A) Except as provided in paragraph (C) of subsection
5(l), whenever a defendant, who is not a citizen or national of
6the United States, is convicted of any felony or misdemeanor
7offense, the court after sentencing the defendant may, upon
8motion of the State's Attorney, hold sentence in abeyance and
9remand the defendant to the custody of the Attorney General of
10the United States or his or her designated agent to be deported
11when:
12        (1) a final order of deportation has been issued
13    against the defendant pursuant to proceedings under the
14    Immigration and Nationality Act, and
15        (2) the deportation of the defendant would not
16    deprecate the seriousness of the defendant's conduct and
17    would not be inconsistent with the ends of justice.
18    Otherwise, the defendant shall be sentenced as provided in
19this Chapter V.
20    (B) If the defendant has already been sentenced for a
21felony or misdemeanor offense, or has been placed on probation
22under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of
23the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the
24Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the
25court may, upon motion of the State's Attorney to suspend the
26sentence imposed, commit the defendant to the custody of the

 

 

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1Attorney General of the United States or his or her designated
2agent when:
3        (1) a final order of deportation has been issued
4    against the defendant pursuant to proceedings under the
5    Immigration and Nationality Act, and
6        (2) the deportation of the defendant would not
7    deprecate the seriousness of the defendant's conduct and
8    would not be inconsistent with the ends of justice.
9    (C) This subsection (l) does not apply to offenders who
10are subject to the provisions of paragraph (2) of subsection
11(a) of Section 3-6-3.
12    (D) Upon motion of the State's Attorney, if a defendant
13sentenced under this Section returns to the jurisdiction of
14the United States, the defendant shall be recommitted to the
15custody of the county from which he or she was sentenced.
16Thereafter, the defendant shall be brought before the
17sentencing court, which may impose any sentence that was
18available under Section 5-5-3 at the time of initial
19sentencing. In addition, the defendant shall not be eligible
20for additional earned sentence credit as provided under
21Section 3-6-3.
22    (m) A person convicted of criminal defacement of property
23under Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
24Criminal Code of 2012, in which the property damage exceeds
25$300 and the property damaged is a school building, shall be
26ordered to perform community service that may include cleanup,

 

 

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1removal, or painting over the defacement.
2    (n) The court may sentence a person convicted of a
3violation of Section 12-19, 12-21, 16-1.3, or 17-56, or
4subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code
5of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (i) to an impact
6incarceration program if the person is otherwise eligible for
7that program under Section 5-8-1.1, (ii) to community service,
8or (iii) if the person has a substance use disorder, as defined
9in the Substance Use Disorder Act, to a treatment program
10licensed under that Act.
11    (o) Whenever a person is convicted of a sex offense as
12defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act, the
13defendant's driver's license or permit shall be subject to
14renewal on an annual basis in accordance with the provisions
15of license renewal established by the Secretary of State.
16(Source: P.A. 102-168, eff. 7-27-21; 102-531, eff. 1-1-22;
17102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1030, eff. 5-27-22; 103-51, eff.
181-1-24; 103-825, eff. 1-1-25; 103-1071, eff. 7-1-25; 103-1081,
19eff. 3-21-25; 104-245, eff. 1-1-26; revised 11-21-25.)
 
20    (730 ILCS 5/5-5-3.2)
21    Sec. 5-5-3.2. Factors in aggravation and extended-term
22sentencing.
23    (a) The following factors shall be accorded weight in
24favor of imposing a term of imprisonment or may be considered
25by the court as reasons to impose a more severe sentence under

 

 

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1Section 5-8-1 or Article 4.5 of Chapter V:
2        (1) the defendant's conduct caused or threatened
3    serious harm;
4        (2) the defendant received compensation for committing
5    the offense;
6        (3) the defendant has a history of prior delinquency
7    or criminal activity;
8        (4) the defendant, by the duties of his office or by
9    his position, was obliged to prevent the particular
10    offense committed or to bring the offenders committing it
11    to justice;
12        (5) the defendant held public office at the time of
13    the offense, and the offense related to the conduct of
14    that office;
15        (6) the defendant utilized his professional reputation
16    or position in the community to commit the offense, or to
17    afford him an easier means of committing it;
18        (7) the sentence is necessary to deter others from
19    committing the same crime;
20        (8) the defendant committed the offense against a
21    person 60 years of age or older or such person's property;
22        (9) the defendant committed the offense against a
23    person who has a physical disability or such person's
24    property;
25        (10) by reason of another individual's actual or
26    perceived race, color, creed, religion, ancestry, gender,

 

 

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1    sexual orientation, physical or mental disability, or
2    national origin, the defendant committed the offense
3    against (i) the person or property of that individual;
4    (ii) the person or property of a person who has an
5    association with, is married to, or has a friendship with
6    the other individual; or (iii) the person or property of a
7    relative (by blood or marriage) of a person described in
8    clause (i) or (ii). For the purposes of this Section,
9    "sexual orientation" has the meaning ascribed to it in
10    paragraph (O-1) of Section 1-103 of the Illinois Human
11    Rights Act;
12        (11) the offense took place in a place of worship or on
13    the grounds of a place of worship, immediately prior to,
14    during or immediately following worship services. For
15    purposes of this subparagraph, "place of worship" shall
16    mean any church, synagogue or other building, structure or
17    place used primarily for religious worship;
18        (12) the defendant was convicted of a felony committed
19    while he was on pretrial release or his own recognizance
20    pending trial for a prior felony and was convicted of such
21    prior felony, or the defendant was convicted of a felony
22    committed while he was serving a period of probation,
23    conditional discharge, or mandatory supervised release
24    under subsection (d) of Section 5-8-1 for a prior felony;
25        (13) the defendant committed or attempted to commit a
26    felony while he was wearing a bulletproof vest. For the

 

 

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1    purposes of this paragraph (13), a bulletproof vest is any
2    device which is designed for the purpose of protecting the
3    wearer from bullets, shot or other lethal projectiles;
4        (14) the defendant held a position of trust or
5    supervision such as, but not limited to, family member as
6    defined in Section 11-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012,
7    teacher, scout leader, baby sitter, or day care worker, in
8    relation to a victim under 18 years of age, and the
9    defendant committed an offense in violation of Section
10    11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-11,
11    11-14.4 except for an offense that involves keeping a
12    place of commercial sexual exploitation of a child,
13    11-15.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3,
14    12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code
15    of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 against that victim;
16        (15) the defendant committed an offense related to the
17    activities of an organized gang. For the purposes of this
18    factor, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in
19    Section 10 of the Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention
20    Act;
21        (16) the defendant committed an offense in violation
22    of one of the following Sections while in a school,
23    regardless of the time of day or time of year; on any
24    conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to
25    transport students to or from school or a school related
26    activity; on the real property of a school; or on a public

 

 

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1    way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any
2    school: Section 10-1, 10-2, 10-5, 11-1.20, 11-1.30,
3    11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14.4, 11-15.1, 11-17.1,
4    11-18.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-2, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2,
5    12-4.3, 12-6, 12-6.1, 12-6.5, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1,
6    12-15, 12-16, 18-2, or 33A-2, or Section 12-3.05 except
7    for subdivision (a)(4) or (g)(1), of the Criminal Code of
8    1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;
9        (16.5) the defendant committed an offense in violation
10    of one of the following Sections while in a day care
11    center, regardless of the time of day or time of year; on
12    the real property of a day care center, regardless of the
13    time of day or time of year; or on a public way within
14    1,000 feet of the real property comprising any day care
15    center, regardless of the time of day or time of year:
16    Section 10-1, 10-2, 10-5, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40,
17    11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14.4, 11-15.1, 11-17.1, 11-18.1,
18    11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-2, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3,
19    12-6, 12-6.1, 12-6.5, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16,
20    18-2, or 33A-2, or Section 12-3.05 except for subdivision
21    (a)(4) or (g)(1), of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
22    Criminal Code of 2012;
23        (17) the defendant committed the offense by reason of
24    any person's activity as a community policing volunteer or
25    to prevent any person from engaging in activity as a
26    community policing volunteer. For the purpose of this

 

 

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1    Section, "community policing volunteer" has the meaning
2    ascribed to it in Section 2-3.5 of the Criminal Code of
3    2012;
4        (18) the defendant committed the offense in a nursing
5    home or on the real property comprising a nursing home.
6    For the purposes of this paragraph (18), "nursing home"
7    means a skilled nursing or intermediate long term care
8    facility that is subject to license by the Illinois
9    Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care
10    Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of
11    2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act;
12        (19) the defendant was a federally licensed firearm
13    dealer and was previously convicted of a violation of
14    subsection (a) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners
15    Identification Card Act before its repeal by this
16    amendatory Act of the 104th General Assembly and has now
17    committed either a felony violation of the Firearm Owners
18    Identification Card Act or an act of armed violence while
19    armed with a firearm;
20        (20) the defendant (i) committed the offense of
21    reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code
22    of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or the offense of
23    driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or
24    drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any
25    combination thereof under Section 11-501 of the Illinois
26    Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance

 

 

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1    and (ii) was operating a motor vehicle in excess of 20
2    miles per hour over the posted speed limit as provided in
3    Article VI of Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;
4        (21) the defendant (i) committed the offense of
5    reckless driving or aggravated reckless driving under
6    Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and (ii) was
7    operating a motor vehicle in excess of 20 miles per hour
8    over the posted speed limit as provided in Article VI of
9    Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;
10        (22) the defendant committed the offense against a
11    person that the defendant knew, or reasonably should have
12    known, was a member of the Armed Forces of the United
13    States serving on active duty. For purposes of this clause
14    (22), the term "Armed Forces" means any of the Armed
15    Forces of the United States, including a member of any
16    reserve component thereof or National Guard unit called to
17    active duty;
18        (23) the defendant committed the offense against a
19    person who was elderly or infirm or who was a person with a
20    disability by taking advantage of a family or fiduciary
21    relationship with the elderly or infirm person or person
22    with a disability;
23        (24) the defendant committed any offense under Section
24    11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code
25    of 2012 and possessed 100 or more images;
26        (25) the defendant committed the offense while the

 

 

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1    defendant or the victim was in a train, bus, or other
2    vehicle used for public transportation;
3        (26) the defendant committed the offense of child
4    sexual abuse material or aggravated child pornography,
5    specifically including paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5),
6    or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the
7    Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 where a
8    child engaged in, solicited for, depicted in, or posed in
9    any act of sexual penetration or bound, fettered, or
10    subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse
11    in a sexual context and specifically including paragraph
12    (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of
13    Section 11-20.1B or Section 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code
14    of 1961 where a child engaged in, solicited for, depicted
15    in, or posed in any act of sexual penetration or bound,
16    fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or
17    sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context;
18        (26.5) the defendant committed the offense of obscene
19    depiction of a purported child, specifically including
20    paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 11-20.4 of the
21    Criminal Code of 2012 if a child engaged in, solicited
22    for, depicted in, or posed in any act of sexual
23    penetration or bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic,
24    masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context;
25        (27) the defendant committed the offense of first
26    degree murder, assault, aggravated assault, battery,

 

 

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1    aggravated battery, robbery, armed robbery, or aggravated
2    robbery against a person who was a veteran and the
3    defendant knew, or reasonably should have known, that the
4    person was a veteran performing duties as a representative
5    of a veterans' organization. For the purposes of this
6    paragraph (27), "veteran" means an Illinois resident who
7    has served as a member of the United States Armed Forces, a
8    member of the Illinois National Guard, or a member of the
9    United States Reserve Forces; and "veterans' organization"
10    means an organization comprised of members of which
11    substantially all are individuals who are veterans or
12    spouses, widows, or widowers of veterans, the primary
13    purpose of which is to promote the welfare of its members
14    and to provide assistance to the general public in such a
15    way as to confer a public benefit;
16        (28) the defendant committed the offense of assault,
17    aggravated assault, battery, aggravated battery, robbery,
18    armed robbery, or aggravated robbery against a person that
19    the defendant knew or reasonably should have known was a
20    letter carrier or postal worker while that person was
21    performing his or her duties delivering mail for the
22    United States Postal Service;
23        (29) the defendant committed the offense of criminal
24    sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault,
25    criminal sexual abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse
26    against a victim with an intellectual disability, and the

 

 

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1    defendant holds a position of trust, authority, or
2    supervision in relation to the victim;
3        (30) the defendant committed the offense of promoting
4    commercial sexual exploitation of a child, patronizing a
5    person engaged in the sex trade, or patronizing a sexually
6    exploited child and at the time of the commission of the
7    offense knew that the person engaged in the sex trade or
8    sexually exploited child was in the custody or
9    guardianship of the Department of Children and Family
10    Services;
11        (31) the defendant (i) committed the offense of
12    driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug
13    or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any
14    combination thereof in violation of Section 11-501 of the
15    Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local
16    ordinance and (ii) the defendant during the commission of
17    the offense was driving his or her vehicle upon a roadway
18    designated for one-way traffic in the opposite direction
19    of the direction indicated by official traffic control
20    devices;
21        (32) the defendant committed the offense of reckless
22    homicide while committing a violation of Section 11-907 of
23    the Illinois Vehicle Code;
24        (33) the defendant was found guilty of an
25    administrative infraction related to an act or acts of
26    public indecency or sexual misconduct in the penal

 

 

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1    institution. In this paragraph (33), "penal institution"
2    has the same meaning as in Section 2-14 of the Criminal
3    Code of 2012; or
4        (34) the defendant committed the offense of leaving
5    the scene of a crash in violation of subsection (b) of
6    Section 11-401 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and the crash
7    resulted in the death of a person and at the time of the
8    offense, the defendant was: (i) driving under the
9    influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating
10    compound or compounds or any combination thereof as
11    defined by Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; or
12    (ii) operating the motor vehicle while using an electronic
13    communication device as defined in Section 12-610.2 of the
14    Illinois Vehicle Code.
15    For the purposes of this Section:
16    "School" is defined as a public or private elementary or
17secondary school, community college, college, or university.
18    "Day care center" means a public or private State
19certified and licensed day care center as defined in Section
202.09 of the Child Care Act of 1969 that displays a sign in
21plain view stating that the property is a day care center.
22    "Intellectual disability" means significantly subaverage
23intellectual functioning which exists concurrently with
24impairment in adaptive behavior.
25    "Public transportation" means the transportation or
26conveyance of persons by means available to the general

 

 

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1public, and includes paratransit services.
2    "Traffic control devices" means all signs, signals,
3markings, and devices that conform to the Illinois Manual on
4Uniform Traffic Control Devices, placed or erected by
5authority of a public body or official having jurisdiction,
6for the purpose of regulating, warning, or guiding traffic.
7    (b) The following factors, related to all felonies, may be
8considered by the court as reasons to impose an extended term
9sentence under Section 5-8-2 upon any offender:
10        (1) When a defendant is convicted of any felony, after
11    having been previously convicted in Illinois or any other
12    jurisdiction of the same or similar class felony or
13    greater class felony, when such conviction has occurred
14    within 10 years after the previous conviction, excluding
15    time spent in custody, and such charges are separately
16    brought and tried and arise out of different series of
17    acts; or
18        (2) When a defendant is convicted of any felony and
19    the court finds that the offense was accompanied by
20    exceptionally brutal or heinous behavior indicative of
21    wanton cruelty; or
22        (3) When a defendant is convicted of any felony
23    committed against:
24            (i) a person under 12 years of age at the time of
25        the offense or such person's property;
26            (ii) a person 60 years of age or older at the time

 

 

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1        of the offense or such person's property; or
2            (iii) a person who had a physical disability at
3        the time of the offense or such person's property; or
4        (4) When a defendant is convicted of any felony and
5    the offense involved any of the following types of
6    specific misconduct committed as part of a ceremony, rite,
7    initiation, observance, performance, practice or activity
8    of any actual or ostensible religious, fraternal, or
9    social group:
10            (i) the brutalizing or torturing of humans or
11        animals;
12            (ii) the theft of human corpses;
13            (iii) the kidnapping of humans;
14            (iv) the desecration of any cemetery, religious,
15        fraternal, business, governmental, educational, or
16        other building or property; or
17            (v) ritualized abuse of a child; or
18        (5) When a defendant is convicted of a felony other
19    than conspiracy and the court finds that the felony was
20    committed under an agreement with 2 or more other persons
21    to commit that offense and the defendant, with respect to
22    the other individuals, occupied a position of organizer,
23    supervisor, financier, or any other position of management
24    or leadership, and the court further finds that the felony
25    committed was related to or in furtherance of the criminal
26    activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the

 

 

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1    defendant's leadership in an organized gang; or
2        (6) When a defendant is convicted of an offense
3    committed while using a firearm with a laser sight
4    attached to it. For purposes of this paragraph, "laser
5    sight" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 26-7 of
6    the Criminal Code of 2012; or
7        (7) When a defendant who was at least 17 years of age
8    at the time of the commission of the offense is convicted
9    of a felony and has been previously adjudicated a
10    delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for
11    an act that if committed by an adult would be a Class X or
12    Class 1 felony when the conviction has occurred within 10
13    years after the previous adjudication, excluding time
14    spent in custody; or
15        (8) When a defendant commits any felony and the
16    defendant used, possessed, exercised control over, or
17    otherwise directed an animal to assault a law enforcement
18    officer engaged in the execution of his or her official
19    duties or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an
20    organized gang in which the defendant is engaged; or
21        (9) When a defendant commits any felony and the
22    defendant knowingly video or audio records the offense
23    with the intent to disseminate the recording.
24    (c) The following factors may be considered by the court
25as reasons to impose an extended term sentence under Section
265-8-2 upon any offender for the listed offenses:

 

 

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1        (1) When a defendant is convicted of first degree
2    murder, after having been previously convicted in Illinois
3    of any offense listed under paragraph (c)(2) of Section
4    5-5-3, when that conviction has occurred within 10 years
5    after the previous conviction, excluding time spent in
6    custody, and the charges are separately brought and tried
7    and arise out of different series of acts.
8        (1.5) When a defendant is convicted of first degree
9    murder, after having been previously convicted of domestic
10    battery or aggravated domestic battery committed on the
11    same victim or after having been previously convicted of
12    violation of an order of protection in which the same
13    victim was the protected person.
14        (2) When a defendant is convicted of voluntary
15    manslaughter, second degree murder, involuntary
16    manslaughter, or reckless homicide in which the defendant
17    has been convicted of causing the death of more than one
18    individual.
19        (3) When a defendant is convicted of aggravated
20    criminal sexual assault or criminal sexual assault, when
21    there is a finding that aggravated criminal sexual assault
22    or criminal sexual assault was also committed on the same
23    victim by one or more other individuals, and the defendant
24    voluntarily participated in the crime with the knowledge
25    of the participation of the others in the crime, and the
26    commission of the crime was part of a single course of

 

 

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1    conduct during which there was no substantial change in
2    the nature of the criminal objective.
3        (4) If the victim was under 18 years of age at the time
4    of the commission of the offense, when a defendant is
5    convicted of aggravated criminal sexual assault or
6    predatory criminal sexual assault of a child under
7    subsection (a)(1) of Section 11-1.40 or subsection (a)(1)
8    of Section 12-14.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
9    Criminal Code of 2012.
10        (5) When a defendant is convicted of a felony
11    violation of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or
12    the Criminal Code of 2012 and there is a finding that the
13    defendant is a member of an organized gang.
14        (6) When a defendant was convicted of unlawful
15    possession of weapons under Section 24-1 of the Criminal
16    Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 for possessing a
17    weapon that is not readily distinguishable as one of the
18    weapons enumerated in Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of
19    1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.
20        (7) When a defendant is convicted of an offense
21    involving the illegal manufacture of a controlled
22    substance under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled
23    Substances Act, the illegal manufacture of methamphetamine
24    under Section 25 of the Methamphetamine Control and
25    Community Protection Act, or the illegal possession of
26    explosives and an emergency response officer in the

 

 

SB3171- 426 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    performance of his or her duties is killed or injured at
2    the scene of the offense while responding to the emergency
3    caused by the commission of the offense. In this
4    paragraph, "emergency" means a situation in which a
5    person's life, health, or safety is in jeopardy; and
6    "emergency response officer" means a peace officer,
7    community policing volunteer, fireman, emergency medical
8    technician-ambulance, emergency medical
9    technician-intermediate, emergency medical
10    technician-paramedic, ambulance driver, other medical
11    assistance or first aid personnel, or hospital emergency
12    room personnel.
13        (8) When the defendant is convicted of attempted mob
14    action, solicitation to commit mob action, or conspiracy
15    to commit mob action under Section 8-1, 8-2, or 8-4 of the
16    Criminal Code of 2012, where the criminal object is a
17    violation of Section 25-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012,
18    and an electronic communication is used in the commission
19    of the offense. For the purposes of this paragraph (8),
20    "electronic communication" shall have the meaning provided
21    in Section 26.5-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.
22    (d) For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has
23the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois
24Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.
25    (e) The court may impose an extended term sentence under
26Article 4.5 of Chapter V upon an offender who has been

 

 

SB3171- 427 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1convicted of a felony violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30,
211-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or
312-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012
4when the victim of the offense is under 18 years of age at the
5time of the commission of the offense and, during the
6commission of the offense, the victim was under the influence
7of alcohol, regardless of whether or not the alcohol was
8supplied by the offender; and the offender, at the time of the
9commission of the offense, knew or should have known that the
10victim had consumed alcohol.
11(Source: P.A. 103-822, eff. 1-1-25; 103-825, eff. 1-1-25;
12103-1071, eff. 7-1-25; 104-245, eff. 1-1-26; 104-417, eff.
138-15-25; revised 9-17-25.)
 
14    (730 ILCS 5/5-6-3)  (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-6-3)
15    Sec. 5-6-3. Conditions of probation and of conditional
16discharge.
17    (a) The conditions of probation and of conditional
18discharge shall be that the person:
19        (1) not violate any criminal statute of any
20    jurisdiction;
21        (2) report to or appear in person before such person
22    or agency as directed by the court. To comply with the
23    provisions of this paragraph (2), in lieu of requiring the
24    person on probation or conditional discharge to appear in
25    person for the required reporting or meetings, the officer

 

 

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1    may utilize technology, including cellular and other
2    electronic communication devices or platforms, that allow
3    for communication between the supervised person and the
4    officer in accordance with standards and guidelines
5    established by the Administrative Office of the Illinois
6    Courts;
7        (3) refrain from possessing a firearm or other
8    dangerous weapon where the offense is a felony or, if a
9    misdemeanor, the offense involved the intentional or
10    knowing infliction of bodily harm or threat of bodily
11    harm;
12        (4) not leave the State without the consent of the
13    court or, in circumstances in which the reason for the
14    absence is of such an emergency nature that prior consent
15    by the court is not possible, without the prior
16    notification and approval of the person's probation
17    officer. Transfer of a person's probation or conditional
18    discharge supervision to another state is subject to
19    acceptance by the other state pursuant to the Interstate
20    Compact for Adult Offender Supervision;
21        (5) permit the probation officer to visit him at his
22    home or elsewhere to the extent necessary to discharge his
23    duties;
24        (6) perform no less than 30 hours of community service
25    and not more than 120 hours of community service, if
26    community service is available in the jurisdiction and is

 

 

SB3171- 429 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    funded and approved by the county board where the offense
2    was committed, where the offense was related to or in
3    furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized
4    gang and was motivated by the offender's membership in or
5    allegiance to an organized gang. The community service
6    shall include, but not be limited to, the cleanup and
7    repair of any damage caused by a violation of Section
8    21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of
9    2012 and similar damage to property located within the
10    municipality or county in which the violation occurred.
11    When possible and reasonable, the community service should
12    be performed in the offender's neighborhood. For purposes
13    of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed
14    to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism
15    Omnibus Prevention Act. The court may give credit toward
16    the fulfillment of community service hours for
17    participation in activities and treatment as determined by
18    court services. Community service shall not interfere with
19    the school hours, school-related activities, or work
20    commitments of the minor or the minor's parent, guardian,
21    or legal custodian;
22        (7) if he or she is at least 17 years of age and has
23    been sentenced to probation or conditional discharge for a
24    misdemeanor or felony in a county of 3,000,000 or more
25    inhabitants and has not been previously convicted of a
26    misdemeanor or felony, may be required by the sentencing

 

 

SB3171- 430 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    court to attend educational courses designed to prepare
2    the defendant for a high school diploma and to work toward
3    a high school diploma or to work toward passing high
4    school equivalency testing or to work toward completing a
5    vocational training program approved by the court. The
6    person on probation or conditional discharge must attend a
7    public institution of education to obtain the educational
8    or vocational training required by this paragraph (7). The
9    court shall revoke the probation or conditional discharge
10    of a person who willfully fails to comply with this
11    paragraph (7). The person on probation or conditional
12    discharge shall be required to pay for the cost of the
13    educational courses or high school equivalency testing if
14    a fee is charged for those courses or testing. The court
15    shall resentence the offender whose probation or
16    conditional discharge has been revoked as provided in
17    Section 5-6-4. This paragraph (7) does not apply to a
18    person who has a high school diploma or has successfully
19    passed high school equivalency testing. This paragraph (7)
20    does not apply to a person who is determined by the court
21    to be a person with a developmental disability or
22    otherwise mentally incapable of completing the educational
23    or vocational program;
24        (8) if convicted of possession of a substance
25    prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois
26    Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control

 

 

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1    and Community Protection Act after a previous conviction
2    or disposition of supervision for possession of a
3    substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act or
4    Illinois Controlled Substances Act or after a sentence of
5    probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act,
6    Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or
7    Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community
8    Protection Act and upon a finding by the court that the
9    person is addicted, undergo treatment at a substance abuse
10    program approved by the court;
11        (8.5) if convicted of a felony sex offense as defined
12    in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, the person shall
13    undergo and successfully complete sex offender treatment
14    by a treatment provider approved by the Board and
15    conducted in conformance with the standards developed
16    under the Sex Offender Management Board Act;
17        (8.6) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the
18    Sex Offender Management Board Act, refrain from residing
19    at the same address or in the same condominium unit or
20    apartment unit or in the same condominium complex or
21    apartment complex with another person he or she knows or
22    reasonably should know is a convicted sex offender or has
23    been placed on supervision for a sex offense; the
24    provisions of this paragraph do not apply to a person
25    convicted of a sex offense who is placed in a Department of
26    Corrections licensed transitional housing facility for sex

 

 

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1    offenders;
2        (8.7) if convicted for an offense committed on or
3    after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act
4    95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex
5    offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the
6    Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012,
7    refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of
8    the Internet, a person who is not related to the accused
9    and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18
10    years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (8.7),
11    "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section
12    16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; and a person is not
13    related to the accused if the person is not: (i) the
14    spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a
15    descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin
16    of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of
17    the accused;
18        (8.8) if convicted for an offense under Section 11-6,
19    11-9.1, 11-14.4 that involves soliciting for a sexually
20    exploited child, 11-15.1, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or
21    11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of
22    2012, or any attempt to commit any of these offenses,
23    committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of
24    Public Act 95-983):
25            (i) not access or use a computer or any other
26        device with Internet capability without the prior

 

 

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1        written approval of the offender's probation officer,
2        except in connection with the offender's employment or
3        search for employment with the prior approval of the
4        offender's probation officer;
5            (ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations
6        of the offender's computer or any other device with
7        Internet capability by the offender's probation
8        officer, a law enforcement officer, or assigned
9        computer or information technology specialist,
10        including the retrieval and copying of all data from
11        the computer or device and any internal or external
12        peripherals and removal of such information,
13        equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough
14        inspection;
15            (iii) submit to the installation on the offender's
16        computer or device with Internet capability, at the
17        offender's expense, of one or more hardware or
18        software systems to monitor the Internet use; and
19            (iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions
20        concerning the offender's use of or access to a
21        computer or any other device with Internet capability
22        imposed by the offender's probation officer;
23        (8.9) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the
24    Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after
25    January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-262),
26    refrain from accessing or using a social networking

 

 

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1    website as defined in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code
2    of 2012;
3        (9) if convicted of a felony or of any misdemeanor
4    violation of Section 12-1, 12-2, 12-3, 12-3.2, 12-3.4, or
5    12-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of
6    2012 that was determined, pursuant to Section 112A-11.1 of
7    the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, to trigger the
8    prohibitions of 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(9), physically surrender
9    at a time and place designated by the court, his or her
10    Firearm Owner's Identification Card and any and all
11    firearms in his or her possession. The Court shall return
12    to the Illinois State Police Firearm Owner's
13    Identification Card Office the person's Firearm Owner's
14    Identification Card;
15        (10) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in
16    subsection (a-5) of Section 3-1-2 of this Code, unless the
17    offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18
18    years of age present in the home and no non-familial
19    minors are present, not participate in a holiday event
20    involving children under 18 years of age, such as
21    distributing candy or other items to children on
22    Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding
23    Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa
24    Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding
25    Easter;
26        (11) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in

 

 

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1    Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act committed
2    on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public
3    Act 96-362) that requires the person to register as a sex
4    offender under that Act, may not knowingly use any
5    computer scrub software on any computer that the sex
6    offender uses;
7        (12) if convicted of a violation of the
8    Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the
9    Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act, or a
10    methamphetamine related offense:
11            (A) prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or
12        having under his or her control any product containing
13        pseudoephedrine unless prescribed by a physician; and
14            (B) prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or
15        having under his or her control any product containing
16        ammonium nitrate; and
17        (13) if convicted of a hate crime involving the
18    protected class identified in subsection (a) of Section
19    12-7.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 that gave rise to the
20    offense the offender committed, perform public or
21    community service of no less than 200 hours and enroll in
22    an educational program discouraging hate crimes that
23    includes racial, ethnic, and cultural sensitivity training
24    ordered by the court.
25    (b) The Court may in addition to other reasonable
26conditions relating to the nature of the offense or the

 

 

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1rehabilitation of the defendant as determined for each
2defendant in the proper discretion of the Court require that
3the person:
4        (1) serve a term of periodic imprisonment under
5    Article 7 for a period not to exceed that specified in
6    paragraph (d) of Section 5-7-1;
7        (2) pay a fine and costs;
8        (3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational
9    training;
10        (4) undergo medical, psychological or psychiatric
11    treatment; or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;
12        (5) attend or reside in a facility established for the
13    instruction or residence of defendants on probation;
14        (6) support his dependents;
15        (7) and in addition, if a minor:
16            (i) reside with his parents or in a foster home;
17            (ii) attend school;
18            (iii) attend a non-residential program for youth;
19            (iv) provide nonfinancial contributions to his own
20        support at home or in a foster home;
21            (v) with the consent of the superintendent of the
22        facility, attend an educational program at a facility
23        other than the school in which the offense was
24        committed if he or she is convicted of a crime of
25        violence as defined in Section 2 of the Crime Victims
26        Compensation Act committed in a school, on the real

 

 

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1        property comprising a school, or within 1,000 feet of
2        the real property comprising a school;
3        (8) make restitution as provided in Section 5-5-6 of
4    this Code;
5        (9) perform some reasonable public or community
6    service;
7        (10) serve a term of home confinement. In addition to
8    any other applicable condition of probation or conditional
9    discharge, the conditions of home confinement shall be
10    that the offender:
11            (i) remain within the interior premises of the
12        place designated for his confinement during the hours
13        designated by the court;
14            (ii) admit any person or agent designated by the
15        court into the offender's place of confinement at any
16        time for purposes of verifying the offender's
17        compliance with the conditions of his confinement; and
18            (iii) if further deemed necessary by the court or
19        the probation or court services department, be placed
20        on an approved electronic monitoring device, subject
21        to Article 8A of Chapter V;
22            (iv) for persons convicted of any alcohol,
23        cannabis or controlled substance violation who are
24        placed on an approved monitoring device as a condition
25        of probation or conditional discharge, the court shall
26        impose a reasonable fee for each day of the use of the

 

 

SB3171- 438 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        device, as established by the county board in
2        subsection (g) of this Section, unless after
3        determining the inability of the offender to pay the
4        fee, the court assesses a lesser fee or no fee as the
5        case may be. This fee shall be imposed in addition to
6        the fees imposed under subsections (g) and (i) of this
7        Section. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the
8        circuit court, except as provided in an administrative
9        order of the Chief Judge of the circuit court. The
10        clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies
11        collected from this fee to the county treasurer for
12        deposit in the substance abuse services fund under
13        Section 5-1086.1 of the Counties Code, except as
14        provided in an administrative order of the Chief Judge
15        of the circuit court.
16            The Chief Judge of the circuit court of the county
17        may by administrative order establish a program for
18        electronic monitoring of offenders, in which a vendor
19        supplies and monitors the operation of the electronic
20        monitoring device, and collects the fees on behalf of
21        the county. The program shall include provisions for
22        indigent offenders and the collection of unpaid fees.
23        The program shall not unduly burden the offender and
24        shall be subject to review by the Chief Judge.
25            The Chief Judge of the circuit court may suspend
26        any additional charges or fees for late payment,

 

 

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1        interest, or damage to any device; and
2            (v) for persons convicted of offenses other than
3        those referenced in clause (iv) above and who are
4        placed on an approved monitoring device as a condition
5        of probation or conditional discharge, the court shall
6        impose a reasonable fee for each day of the use of the
7        device, as established by the county board in
8        subsection (g) of this Section, unless after
9        determining the inability of the defendant to pay the
10        fee, the court assesses a lesser fee or no fee as the
11        case may be. This fee shall be imposed in addition to
12        the fees imposed under subsections (g) and (i) of this
13        Section. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the
14        circuit court, except as provided in an administrative
15        order of the Chief Judge of the circuit court. The
16        clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies
17        collected from this fee to the county treasurer who
18        shall use the monies collected to defray the costs of
19        corrections. The county treasurer shall deposit the
20        fee collected in the probation and court services
21        fund. The Chief Judge of the circuit court of the
22        county may by administrative order establish a program
23        for electronic monitoring of offenders, in which a
24        vendor supplies and monitors the operation of the
25        electronic monitoring device, and collects the fees on
26        behalf of the county. The program shall include

 

 

SB3171- 440 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        provisions for indigent offenders and the collection
2        of unpaid fees. The program shall not unduly burden
3        the offender and shall be subject to review by the
4        Chief Judge.
5            The Chief Judge of the circuit court may suspend
6        any additional charges or fees for late payment,
7        interest, or damage to any device.
8        (11) comply with the terms and conditions of an order
9    of protection issued by the court pursuant to the Illinois
10    Domestic Violence Act of 1986, as now or hereafter
11    amended, or an order of protection issued by the court of
12    another state, tribe, or United States territory. A copy
13    of the order of protection shall be transmitted to the
14    probation officer or agency having responsibility for the
15    case;
16        (12) reimburse any "local anti-crime program" as
17    defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council
18    Act for any reasonable expenses incurred by the program on
19    the offender's case, not to exceed the maximum amount of
20    the fine authorized for the offense for which the
21    defendant was sentenced;
22        (13) contribute a reasonable sum of money, not to
23    exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the
24    offense for which the defendant was sentenced, (i) to a
25    "local anti-crime program", as defined in Section 7 of the
26    Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act, or (ii) for offenses

 

 

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1    under the jurisdiction of the Department of Natural
2    Resources, to the fund established by the Department of
3    Natural Resources for the purchase of evidence for
4    investigation purposes and to conduct investigations as
5    outlined in Section 805-105 of the Department of Natural
6    Resources (Conservation) Law;
7        (14) refrain from entering into a designated
8    geographic area except upon such terms as the court finds
9    appropriate. Such terms may include consideration of the
10    purpose of the entry, the time of day, other persons
11    accompanying the defendant, and advance approval by a
12    probation officer, if the defendant has been placed on
13    probation or advance approval by the court, if the
14    defendant was placed on conditional discharge;
15        (15) refrain from having any contact, directly or
16    indirectly, with certain specified persons or particular
17    types of persons, including, but not limited to, members
18    of street gangs and drug users or dealers;
19        (16) refrain from having in his or her body the
20    presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Illinois
21    Controlled Substances Act or the Methamphetamine Control
22    and Community Protection Act, unless prescribed by a
23    physician, and submit samples of his or her blood or urine
24    or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit
25    drug;
26        (17) if convicted for an offense committed on or after

 

 

SB3171- 442 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464)
2    that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as
3    defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code
4    of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, refrain from
5    communicating with or contacting, by means of the
6    Internet, a person who is related to the accused and whom
7    the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of
8    age; for purposes of this paragraph (17), "Internet" has
9    the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the
10    Criminal Code of 2012; and a person is related to the
11    accused if the person is: (i) the spouse, brother, or
12    sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused;
13    (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a
14    step-child or adopted child of the accused;
15        (18) if convicted for an offense committed on or after
16    June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983)
17    that would qualify as a sex offense as defined in the Sex
18    Offender Registration Act:
19            (i) not access or use a computer or any other
20        device with Internet capability without the prior
21        written approval of the offender's probation officer,
22        except in connection with the offender's employment or
23        search for employment with the prior approval of the
24        offender's probation officer;
25            (ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations
26        of the offender's computer or any other device with

 

 

SB3171- 443 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        Internet capability by the offender's probation
2        officer, a law enforcement officer, or assigned
3        computer or information technology specialist,
4        including the retrieval and copying of all data from
5        the computer or device and any internal or external
6        peripherals and removal of such information,
7        equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough
8        inspection;
9            (iii) submit to the installation on the offender's
10        computer or device with Internet capability, at the
11        subject's expense, of one or more hardware or software
12        systems to monitor the Internet use; and
13            (iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions
14        concerning the offender's use of or access to a
15        computer or any other device with Internet capability
16        imposed by the offender's probation officer; and
17        (19) refrain from possessing a firearm or other
18    dangerous weapon where the offense is a misdemeanor that
19    did not involve the intentional or knowing infliction of
20    bodily harm or threat of bodily harm.
21    (c) The court may as a condition of probation or of
22conditional discharge require that a person under 18 years of
23age found guilty of any alcohol, cannabis or controlled
24substance violation, refrain from acquiring a driver's license
25during the period of probation or conditional discharge. If
26such person is in possession of a permit or license, the court

 

 

SB3171- 444 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1may require that the minor refrain from driving or operating
2any motor vehicle during the period of probation or
3conditional discharge, except as may be necessary in the
4course of the minor's lawful employment.
5    (d) An offender sentenced to probation or to conditional
6discharge shall be given a certificate setting forth the
7conditions thereof.
8    (e) Except where the offender has committed a fourth or
9subsequent violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the
10Illinois Vehicle Code, the court shall not require as a
11condition of the sentence of probation or conditional
12discharge that the offender be committed to a period of
13imprisonment in excess of 6 months. This 6-month limit shall
14not include periods of confinement given pursuant to a
15sentence of county impact incarceration under Section 5-8-1.2.
16    Persons committed to imprisonment as a condition of
17probation or conditional discharge shall not be committed to
18the Department of Corrections.
19    (f) The court may combine a sentence of periodic
20imprisonment under Article 7 or a sentence to a county impact
21incarceration program under Article 8 with a sentence of
22probation or conditional discharge.
23    (g) An offender sentenced to probation or to conditional
24discharge and who during the term of either undergoes
25mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, or is assigned to
26be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device, shall

 

 

SB3171- 445 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1be ordered to pay all costs incidental to such mandatory drug
2or alcohol testing, or both, and all costs incidental to such
3approved electronic monitoring in accordance with the
4defendant's ability to pay those costs. The county board with
5the concurrence of the Chief Judge of the judicial circuit in
6which the county is located shall establish reasonable fees
7for the cost of maintenance, testing, and incidental expenses
8related to the mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and
9all costs incidental to approved electronic monitoring,
10involved in a successful probation program for the county. The
11concurrence of the Chief Judge shall be in the form of an
12administrative order. The fees shall be collected by the clerk
13of the circuit court, except as provided in an administrative
14order of the Chief Judge of the circuit court. The clerk of the
15circuit court shall pay all moneys collected from these fees
16to the county treasurer who shall use the moneys collected to
17defray the costs of drug testing, alcohol testing, and
18electronic monitoring. The county treasurer shall deposit the
19fees collected in the county working cash fund under Section
206-27001 or Section 6-29002 of the Counties Code, as the case
21may be. The Chief Judge of the circuit court of the county may
22by administrative order establish a program for electronic
23monitoring of offenders, in which a vendor supplies and
24monitors the operation of the electronic monitoring device,
25and collects the fees on behalf of the county. The program
26shall include provisions for indigent offenders and the

 

 

SB3171- 446 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1collection of unpaid fees. The program shall not unduly burden
2the offender and shall be subject to review by the Chief Judge.
3A person shall not be assessed costs or fees for mandatory
4testing for drugs, alcohol, or both, if the person is an
5indigent person as defined in paragraph (2) of subsection (a)
6of Section 5-105 of the Code of Civil Procedure.
7    The Chief Judge of the circuit court may suspend any
8additional charges or fees for late payment, interest, or
9damage to any device.
10    (h) Jurisdiction over an offender may be transferred from
11the sentencing court to the court of another circuit with the
12concurrence of both courts. Further transfers or retransfers
13of jurisdiction are also authorized in the same manner. The
14court to which jurisdiction has been transferred shall have
15the same powers as the sentencing court. The probation
16department within the circuit to which jurisdiction has been
17transferred, or which has agreed to provide supervision, may
18impose probation fees upon receiving the transferred offender,
19as provided in subsection (i). For all transfer cases, as
20defined in Section 9b of the Probation and Probation Officers
21Act, the probation department from the original sentencing
22court shall retain all probation fees collected prior to the
23transfer. After the transfer, all probation fees shall be paid
24to the probation department within the circuit to which
25jurisdiction has been transferred.
26    (i) The court shall impose upon an offender sentenced to

 

 

SB3171- 447 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1probation after January 1, 1989 or to conditional discharge
2after January 1, 1992 or to community service under the
3supervision of a probation or court services department after
4January 1, 2004, as a condition of such probation or
5conditional discharge or supervised community service, a fee
6of $50 for each month of probation or conditional discharge
7supervision or supervised community service ordered by the
8court, unless after determining the inability of the person
9sentenced to probation or conditional discharge or supervised
10community service to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser
11fee. The court may not impose the fee on a minor who is placed
12in the guardianship or custody of the Department of Children
13and Family Services under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 while
14the minor is in placement. The fee shall be imposed only upon
15an offender who is actively supervised by the probation and
16court services department. The fee shall be collected by the
17clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court
18shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county
19treasurer for deposit in the probation and court services fund
20under Section 15.1 of the Probation and Probation Officers
21Act.
22    A circuit court may not impose a probation fee under this
23subsection (i) in excess of $25 per month unless the circuit
24court has adopted, by administrative order issued by the Chief
25Judge, a standard probation fee guide determining an
26offender's ability to pay. Of the amount collected as a

 

 

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1probation fee, up to $5 of that fee collected per month may be
2used to provide services to crime victims and their families.
3    The Court may only waive probation fees based on an
4offender's ability to pay. The probation department may
5re-evaluate an offender's ability to pay every 6 months, and,
6with the approval of the Director of Court Services or the
7Chief Probation Officer, adjust the monthly fee amount. An
8offender may elect to pay probation fees due in a lump sum. Any
9offender that has been assigned to the supervision of a
10probation department, or has been transferred either under
11subsection (h) of this Section or under any interstate
12compact, shall be required to pay probation fees to the
13department supervising the offender, based on the offender's
14ability to pay.
15    Public Act 93-970 deletes the $10 increase in the fee
16under this subsection that was imposed by Public Act 93-616.
17This deletion is intended to control over any other Act of the
1893rd General Assembly that retains or incorporates that fee
19increase.
20    (i-5) In addition to the fees imposed under subsection (i)
21of this Section, in the case of an offender convicted of a
22felony sex offense (as defined in the Sex Offender Management
23Board Act) or an offense that the court or probation
24department has determined to be sexually motivated (as defined
25in the Sex Offender Management Board Act), the court or the
26probation department shall assess additional fees to pay for

 

 

SB3171- 449 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1all costs of treatment, assessment, evaluation for risk and
2treatment, and monitoring the offender, based on that
3offender's ability to pay those costs either as they occur or
4under a payment plan.
5    (j) All fines and costs imposed under this Section for any
6violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois Vehicle
7Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any
8violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar
9provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and
10disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under the Criminal
11and Traffic Assessment Act.
12    (k) Any offender who is sentenced to probation or
13conditional discharge for a felony sex offense as defined in
14the Sex Offender Management Board Act or any offense that the
15court or probation department has determined to be sexually
16motivated as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act
17shall be required to refrain from any contact, directly or
18indirectly, with any persons specified by the court and shall
19be available for all evaluations and treatment programs
20required by the court or the probation department.
21    (l) The court may order an offender who is sentenced to
22probation or conditional discharge for a violation of an order
23of protection be placed under electronic surveillance as
24provided in Section 5-8A-7 of this Code.
25    (m) Except for restitution, and assessments issued for
26adjudications under Section 5-125 of the Juvenile Court Act of

 

 

SB3171- 450 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

11987, fines and assessments, such as fees or administrative
2costs, authorized under this Section shall not be ordered or
3imposed on a minor subject to Article III, IV, or V of the
4Juvenile Court Act of 1987, or a minor under the age of 18
5transferred to adult court or excluded from juvenile court
6jurisdiction under Article V of the Juvenile Court Act of
71987, or the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian.
8    (n) A person on probation, conditional discharge, or
9supervision shall not be ordered to refrain from having
10cannabis or alcohol in his or her body unless:
11        (1) the person is under 21 years old;
12        (2) the person was sentenced to probation, conditional
13    discharge, or supervision for an offense which had as an
14    element of the offense the presence of an intoxicating
15    compound in the person's body;
16        (3) the person is participating in a problem-solving
17    court certified by the Illinois Supreme Court;
18        (4) the person has undergone a validated clinical
19    assessment and the clinical treatment plan includes
20    alcohol or cannabis testing; or
21        (5) a court ordered evaluation recommends that the
22    person refrain from using alcohol or cannabis, provided
23    the evaluation is a validated clinical assessment and the
24    recommendation originates from a clinical treatment plan.
25    If the court has made findings that alcohol use was a
26contributing factor in the commission of the underlying

 

 

SB3171- 451 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1offense, the court may order a person on probation,
2conditional discharge, or supervision to refrain from having
3alcohol in his or her body during the time between sentencing
4and the completion of a validated clinical assessment,
5provided that such order shall not exceed 30 days and shall be
6terminated if the clinical treatment plan does not recommend
7abstinence or testing, or both.
8    In this subsection (n), "validated clinical assessment"
9and "clinical treatment plan" have the meanings ascribed to
10them in Section 10 of the Drug Court Treatment Act.
11    In any instance in which the court orders testing for
12cannabis or alcohol, the court shall state the reasonable
13relation the condition has to the person's crime for which the
14person was placed on probation, conditional discharge, or
15supervision.
16    (o) A person on probation, conditional discharge, or
17supervision shall not be ordered to refrain from use or
18consumption of any substance lawfully prescribed by a medical
19provider or authorized by the Compassionate Use of Medical
20Cannabis Program Act, except where use is prohibited in
21paragraph (3) or (4) of subsection (n).
22(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21;
23103-271, eff. 1-1-24; 103-379, eff. 7-28-23; 103-391, eff.
241-1-24; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-1071, eff. 7-1-25.)
 
25    (730 ILCS 5/3-2-13 rep.)

 

 

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1    Section 91. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by
2repealing Section 3-2-13.
 
3    Section 95. The Stalking No Contact Order Act is amended
4by changing Section 80 as follows:
 
5    (740 ILCS 21/80)
6    Sec. 80. Stalking no contact orders; remedies.
7    (a) If the court finds that the petitioner has been a
8victim of stalking, a stalking no contact order shall issue;
9provided that the petitioner must also satisfy the
10requirements of Section 95 on emergency orders or Section 100
11on plenary orders. The petitioner shall not be denied a
12stalking no contact order because the petitioner or the
13respondent is a minor. The court, when determining whether or
14not to issue a stalking no contact order, may not require
15physical injury on the person of the petitioner. Modification
16and extension of prior stalking no contact orders shall be in
17accordance with this Act.
18    (b) A stalking no contact order shall order one or more of
19the following:
20        (1) prohibit the respondent from threatening to commit
21    or committing stalking;
22        (2) order the respondent not to have any contact with
23    the petitioner or a third person specifically named by the
24    court;

 

 

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1        (3) prohibit the respondent from knowingly coming
2    within, or knowingly remaining within a specified distance
3    of the petitioner or the petitioner's residence, school,
4    daycare, or place of employment, or any specified place
5    frequented by the petitioner; however, the court may order
6    the respondent to stay away from the respondent's own
7    residence, school, or place of employment only if the
8    respondent has been provided actual notice of the
9    opportunity to appear and be heard on the petition;
10        (4) prohibit the respondent from possessing a Firearm
11    Owners Identification Card, or possessing or buying
12    firearms;
13        (5) prohibit the respondent from using any electronic
14    tracking system or acquiring tracking information to
15    determine the petitioner's location, movement, or travel
16    pattern; and
17        (6) order other injunctive relief the court determines
18    to be necessary to protect the petitioner or third party
19    specifically named by the court.
20    (b-5) When the petitioner and the respondent attend the
21same public, private, or non-public elementary, middle, or
22high school, the court when issuing a stalking no contact
23order and providing relief shall consider the severity of the
24act, any continuing physical danger or emotional distress to
25the petitioner, the educational rights guaranteed to the
26petitioner and respondent under federal and State law, the

 

 

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1availability of a transfer of the respondent to another
2school, a change of placement or a change of program of the
3respondent, the expense, difficulty, and educational
4disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the
5respondent to another school, and any other relevant facts of
6the case. The court may order that the respondent not attend
7the public, private, or non-public elementary, middle, or high
8school attended by the petitioner, order that the respondent
9accept a change of placement or program, as determined by the
10school district or private or non-public school, or place
11restrictions on the respondent's movements within the school
12attended by the petitioner. The respondent bears the burden of
13proving by a preponderance of the evidence that a transfer,
14change of placement, or change of program of the respondent is
15not available. The respondent also bears the burden of
16production with respect to the expense, difficulty, and
17educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of
18the respondent to another school. A transfer, change of
19placement, or change of program is not unavailable to the
20respondent solely on the ground that the respondent does not
21agree with the school district's or private or non-public
22school's transfer, change of placement, or change of program
23or solely on the ground that the respondent fails or refuses to
24consent to or otherwise does not take an action required to
25effectuate a transfer, change of placement, or change of
26program. When a court orders a respondent to stay away from the

 

 

SB3171- 455 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1public, private, or non-public school attended by the
2petitioner and the respondent requests a transfer to another
3attendance center within the respondent's school district or
4private or non-public school, the school district or private
5or non-public school shall have sole discretion to determine
6the attendance center to which the respondent is transferred.
7In the event the court order results in a transfer of the minor
8respondent to another attendance center, a change in the
9respondent's placement, or a change of the respondent's
10program, the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of the
11respondent is responsible for transportation and other costs
12associated with the transfer or change.
13    (b-6) The court may order the parents, guardian, or legal
14custodian of a minor respondent to take certain actions or to
15refrain from taking certain actions to ensure that the
16respondent complies with the order. In the event the court
17orders a transfer of the respondent to another school, the
18parents, guardian, or legal custodian of the respondent are
19responsible for transportation and other costs associated with
20the change of school by the respondent.
21    (b-7) The court shall not hold a school district or
22private or non-public school or any of its employees in civil
23or criminal contempt unless the school district or private or
24non-public school has been allowed to intervene.
25    (b-8) The court may hold the parents, guardian, or legal
26custodian of a minor respondent in civil or criminal contempt

 

 

SB3171- 456 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1for a violation of any provision of any order entered under
2this Act for conduct of the minor respondent in violation of
3this Act if the parents, guardian, or legal custodian
4directed, encouraged, or assisted the respondent minor in such
5conduct.
6    (c) The court may award the petitioner costs and attorneys
7fees if a stalking no contact order is granted.
8    (d) Monetary damages are not recoverable as a remedy.
9    (e) If the stalking no contact order prohibits the
10respondent from possessing a Firearm Owner's Identification
11Card, or possessing or buying firearms; the court shall
12confiscate the respondent's firearms Firearm Owner's
13Identification Card and immediately return the card to the
14Illinois State Police Firearm Owner's Identification Card
15Office.
16(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 103-760, eff. 1-1-25.)
 
17    Section 100. The Mental Health and Developmental
18Disabilities Confidentiality Act is amended by changing
19Section 12 as follows:
 
20    (740 ILCS 110/12)  (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 812)
21    Sec. 12. (a) If the United States Secret Service or the
22Illinois State Police requests information from a mental
23health or developmental disability facility, as defined in
24Section 1-107 and 1-114 of the Mental Health and Developmental

 

 

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1Disabilities Code, relating to a specific recipient and the
2facility director determines that disclosure of such
3information may be necessary to protect the life of, or to
4prevent the infliction of great bodily harm to, a public
5official, or a person under the protection of the United
6States Secret Service, only the following information may be
7disclosed: the recipient's name, address, and age and the date
8of any admission to or discharge from a facility; and any
9information which would indicate whether or not the recipient
10has a history of violence or presents a danger of violence to
11the person under protection. Any information so disclosed
12shall be used for investigative purposes only and shall not be
13publicly disseminated. Any person participating in good faith
14in the disclosure of such information in accordance with this
15provision shall have immunity from any liability, civil,
16criminal or otherwise, if such information is disclosed
17relying upon the representation of an officer of the United
18States Secret Service or the Illinois State Police that a
19person is under the protection of the United States Secret
20Service or is a public official.
21    For the purpose of this subsection (a), the term "public
22official" means the Governor, Lieutenant Governor, Attorney
23General, Secretary of State, State Comptroller, State
24Treasurer, member of the General Assembly, member of the
25United States Congress, Judge of the United States as defined
26in 28 U.S.C. 451, Justice of the United States as defined in 28

 

 

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1U.S.C. 451, United States Magistrate Judge as defined in 28
2U.S.C. 639, Bankruptcy Judge appointed under 28 U.S.C. 152, or
3Supreme, Appellate, Circuit, or Associate Judge of the State
4of Illinois. The term shall also include the spouse, child or
5children of a public official.
6    (b) The Department of Human Services (acting as successor
7to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental
8Disabilities) and all public or private hospitals and mental
9health facilities are required, as hereafter described in this
10subsection, to furnish the Illinois State Police only such
11information as may be required for the sole purpose of
12determining whether an individual who may be or may have been a
13patient is disqualified because of that status from receiving
14or retaining a firearm under paragraph (4) of subsection (a)
15of Section 24-3.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 Firearm Owner's
16Identification Card or falls within the federal prohibitors
17under subsection (e), (f), (g), (r), (s), or (t) of Section 8
18of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, or falls within
19the federal prohibitors in 18 U.S.C. 922(g) and (n). All
20physicians, clinical psychologists, or qualified examiners at
21public or private mental health facilities or parts thereof as
22defined in this subsection shall, in the form and manner
23required by the Department, provide notice directly to the
24Department of Human Services, or to his or her employer who
25shall then report to the Department, within 24 hours after
26determining that a person poses a clear and present danger to

 

 

SB3171- 459 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1himself, herself, or others, or within 7 days after a person 14
2years or older is determined to be a person with a
3developmental disability by a physician, clinical
4psychologist, or qualified examiner as described in this
5subsection (b) Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners
6Identification Card Act. If a person is a patient as described
7in clause (2)(A) (1) of the definition of "patient" in this
8subsection Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification
9Card Act, this information shall be furnished within 7 days
10after admission to a public or private hospital or mental
11health facility or the provision of services. Any such
12information disclosed under this subsection shall remain
13privileged and confidential, and shall not be redisclosed,
14except as required by clause (e)(2) of Section 24-4.5 of the
15Criminal Code of 2012 subsection (e) of Section 3.1 of the
16Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, nor utilized for any
17other purpose. The method of requiring the providing of such
18information shall guarantee that no information is released
19beyond what is necessary for this purpose. In addition, the
20information disclosed shall be provided by the Department
21within the time period established by Section 24-3 of the
22Criminal Code of 2012 regarding the delivery of firearms. The
23method used shall be sufficient to provide the necessary
24information within the prescribed time period, which may
25include periodically providing lists to the Department of
26Human Services or any public or private hospital or mental

 

 

SB3171- 460 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1health facility of Firearm Owner's Identification Card    
2applicants for firearm purchases on which the Department or
3hospital shall indicate the identities of those individuals
4who are to its knowledge disqualified from having a firearm    
5Firearm Owner's Identification Card for reasons described
6herein. The Department may provide for a centralized source of
7information for the State on this subject under its
8jurisdiction. The identity of the person reporting under this
9subsection shall not be disclosed to the subject of the
10report. For the purposes of this subsection, the physician,
11clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner making the
12determination and his or her employer shall not be held
13criminally, civilly, or professionally liable for making or
14not making the notification required under this subsection,
15except for willful or wanton misconduct.
16    Any person, institution, or agency, under this Act,
17participating in good faith in the reporting or disclosure of
18records and communications otherwise in accordance with this
19provision or with rules, regulations or guidelines issued by
20the Department shall have immunity from any liability, civil,
21criminal or otherwise, that might result by reason of the
22action. For the purpose of any proceeding, civil or criminal,
23arising out of a report or disclosure in accordance with this
24provision, the good faith of any person, institution, or
25agency so reporting or disclosing shall be presumed. The full
26extent of the immunity provided in this subsection (b) shall

 

 

SB3171- 461 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1apply to any person, institution or agency that fails to make a
2report or disclosure in the good faith belief that the report
3or disclosure would violate federal regulations governing the
4confidentiality of alcohol and drug abuse patient records
5implementing 42 U.S.C. 290dd-3 and 290ee-3.
6    For purposes of this subsection (b) only, the following
7terms shall have the meaning prescribed:
8        (1) (Blank).
9        (1.3) "Clear and present danger" has the meaning as
10    defined in Section 6-103.3 of the Mental Health and
11    Developmental Disabilities Code 1.1 of the Firearm Owners
12    Identification Card Act.
13        (1.5) "Person with a developmental disability" has the
14    meaning as defined in Section 6-103.2 of the Mental Health
15    and Developmental Disabilities Code 1.1 of the Firearm
16    Owners Identification Card Act.
17        (2) "Patient" means (A) a person who voluntarily
18    receives mental health treatment as an in-patient or
19    resident of any public or private mental health facility,
20    unless the treatment was solely for an alcohol abuse
21    disorder and no other secondary substance abuse disorder
22    or mental illness; or (B) a person who voluntarily
23    receives mental health treatment as an out-patient or is
24    provided services by a public or private mental health
25    facility, and who poses a clear and present danger to
26    himself, herself, or to others has the meaning as defined

 

 

SB3171- 462 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card
2    Act.
3        (3) "Mental health facility" means any licensed
4    private hospital or hospital affiliate, institution, or
5    facility, or part thereof, and any facility, or part
6    thereof, operated by the State or a political subdivision
7    thereof which provide treatment of persons with mental
8    illness and includes all hospitals, institutions, clinics,
9    evaluation facilities, mental health centers, colleges,
10    universities, long-term care facilities, and nursing
11    homes, or parts thereof, which provide treatment of
12    persons with mental illness whether or not the primary
13    purpose is to provide treatment of persons with mental
14    illness has the meaning as defined in Section 1.1 of the
15    Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.
16    (c) Upon the request of a peace officer who takes a person
17into custody and transports such person to a mental health or
18developmental disability facility pursuant to Section 3-606 or
194-404 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code
20or who transports a person from such facility, a facility
21director shall furnish said peace officer the name, address,
22age and name of the nearest relative of the person transported
23to or from the mental health or developmental disability
24facility. In no case shall the facility director disclose to
25the peace officer any information relating to the diagnosis,
26treatment or evaluation of the person's mental or physical

 

 

SB3171- 463 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1health.
2    For the purposes of this subsection (c), the terms "mental
3health or developmental disability facility", "peace officer"
4and "facility director" shall have the meanings ascribed to
5them in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.
6    (d) Upon the request of a peace officer or prosecuting
7authority who is conducting a bona fide investigation of a
8criminal offense, or attempting to apprehend a fugitive from
9justice, a facility director may disclose whether a person is
10present at the facility. Upon request of a peace officer or
11prosecuting authority who has a valid forcible felony warrant
12issued, a facility director shall disclose: (1) whether the
13person who is the subject of the warrant is present at the
14facility and (2) the date of that person's discharge or future
15discharge from the facility. The requesting peace officer or
16prosecuting authority must furnish a case number and the
17purpose of the investigation or an outstanding arrest warrant
18at the time of the request. Any person, institution, or agency
19participating in good faith in disclosing such information in
20accordance with this subsection (d) is immune from any
21liability, civil, criminal or otherwise, that might result by
22reason of the action.
23(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)
 
24    Section 105. The Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 is
25amended by changing Sections 210 and 214 as follows:
 

 

 

SB3171- 464 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    (750 ILCS 60/210)  (from Ch. 40, par. 2312-10)
2    Sec. 210. Process.
3    (a) Summons. Any action for an order of protection,
4whether commenced alone or in conjunction with another
5proceeding, is a distinct cause of action and requires that a
6separate summons be issued and served, except that in pending
7cases the following methods may be used:
8        (1) By delivery of the summons to respondent
9    personally in open court in pending civil or criminal
10    cases.
11        (2) By notice in accordance with Section 210.1 in
12    civil cases in which the defendant has filed a general
13    appearance.
14    The summons shall be in the form prescribed by Supreme
15Court Rule 101(d), except that it shall require respondent to
16answer or appear within 7 days. Attachments to the summons or
17notice shall include the petition for order of protection and
18supporting affidavits, if any, and any emergency order of
19protection that has been issued. The enforcement of an order
20of protection under Section 223 shall not be affected by the
21lack of service, delivery, or notice, provided the
22requirements of subsection (d) of that Section are otherwise
23met.
24    (b) Blank.
25    (c) Expedited service. The summons shall be served by the

 

 

SB3171- 465 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1sheriff or other law enforcement officer at the earliest time
2and shall take precedence over other summonses except those of
3a similar emergency nature. Special process servers may be
4appointed at any time, and their designation shall not affect
5the responsibilities and authority of the sheriff or other
6official process servers. In counties with a population over
73,000,000, a special process server may not be appointed if
8the order of protection grants the surrender of a child, the
9surrender of a firearm or firearm owners identification card,
10or the exclusive possession of a shared residence.
11    (d) Remedies requiring actual notice. The counseling,
12payment of support, payment of shelter services, and payment
13of losses remedies provided by paragraphs 4, 12, 13, and 16 of
14subsection (b) of Section 214 may be granted only if
15respondent has been personally served with process, has
16answered or has made a general appearance.
17    (e) Remedies upon constructive notice. Service of process
18on a member of respondent's household or by publication shall
19be adequate for the remedies provided by paragraphs 1, 2, 3, 5,
206, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 14, 15, and 17 of subsection (b) of Section
21214, but only if: (i) petitioner has made all reasonable
22efforts to accomplish actual service of process personally
23upon respondent, but respondent cannot be found to effect such
24service and (ii) petitioner files an affidavit or presents
25sworn testimony as to those efforts.
26    (f) Default. A plenary order of protection may be entered

 

 

SB3171- 466 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1by default as follows:
2        (1) For any of the remedies sought in the petition, if
3    respondent has been served or given notice in accordance
4    with subsection (a) and if respondent then fails to appear
5    as directed or fails to appear on any subsequent
6    appearance or hearing date agreed to by the parties or set
7    by the court; or
8        (2) For any of the remedies provided in accordance
9    with subsection (e), if respondent fails to answer or
10    appear in accordance with the date set in the publication
11    notice or the return date indicated on the service of a
12    household member.
13    (g) Emergency orders. If an order is granted under
14subsection (c) of Section 217, the court shall immediately
15file a certified copy of the order with the sheriff or other
16law enforcement official charged with maintaining Department
17of State Police records.
18(Source: P.A. 101-508, eff. 1-1-20.)
 
19    (750 ILCS 60/214)  (from Ch. 40, par. 2312-14)
20    Sec. 214. Order of protection; remedies.
21    (a) Issuance of order. If the court finds that petitioner
22has been abused by a family or household member or that
23petitioner is a high-risk adult who has been abused,
24neglected, or exploited, as defined in this Act, an order of
25protection prohibiting the abuse, neglect, or exploitation

 

 

SB3171- 467 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1shall issue; provided that petitioner must also satisfy the
2requirements of one of the following Sections, as appropriate:
3Section 217 on emergency orders, Section 218 on interim
4orders, or Section 219 on plenary orders. Petitioner shall not
5be denied an order of protection because petitioner or
6respondent is a minor. The court, when determining whether or
7not to issue an order of protection, shall not require
8physical manifestations of abuse on the person of the victim.
9Modification and extension of prior orders of protection shall
10be in accordance with this Act.
11    (b) Remedies and standards. The remedies to be included in
12an order of protection shall be determined in accordance with
13this Section and one of the following Sections, as
14appropriate: Section 217 on emergency orders, Section 218 on
15interim orders, and Section 219 on plenary orders. The
16remedies listed in this subsection shall be in addition to
17other civil or criminal remedies available to petitioner.
18        (1) Prohibition of abuse, neglect, or exploitation.
19    Prohibit respondent's harassment, interference with
20    personal liberty, intimidation of a dependent, physical
21    abuse, or willful deprivation, neglect or exploitation, as
22    defined in this Act, or stalking of the petitioner, as
23    defined in Section 12-7.3 of the Criminal Code of 2012, if
24    such abuse, neglect, exploitation, or stalking has
25    occurred or otherwise appears likely to occur if not
26    prohibited.

 

 

SB3171- 468 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        (2) Grant of exclusive possession of residence.
2    Prohibit respondent from entering or remaining in any
3    residence, household, or premises of the petitioner,
4    including one owned or leased by respondent, if petitioner
5    has a right to occupancy thereof. The grant of exclusive
6    possession of the residence, household, or premises shall
7    not affect title to real property, nor shall the court be
8    limited by the standard set forth in subsection (c-2) of
9    Section 501 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of
10    Marriage Act.
11            (A) Right to occupancy. A party has a right to
12        occupancy of a residence or household if it is solely
13        or jointly owned or leased by that party, that party's
14        spouse, a person with a legal duty to support that
15        party or a minor child in that party's care, or by any
16        person or entity other than the opposing party that
17        authorizes that party's occupancy (e.g., a domestic
18        violence shelter). Standards set forth in subparagraph
19        (B) shall not preclude equitable relief.
20            (B) Presumption of hardships. If petitioner and
21        respondent each has the right to occupancy of a
22        residence or household, the court shall balance (i)
23        the hardships to respondent and any minor child or
24        dependent adult in respondent's care resulting from
25        entry of this remedy with (ii) the hardships to
26        petitioner and any minor child or dependent adult in

 

 

SB3171- 469 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        petitioner's care resulting from continued exposure to
2        the risk of abuse (should petitioner remain at the
3        residence or household) or from loss of possession of
4        the residence or household (should petitioner leave to
5        avoid the risk of abuse). When determining the balance
6        of hardships, the court shall also take into account
7        the accessibility of the residence or household.
8        Hardships need not be balanced if respondent does not
9        have a right to occupancy.
10            The balance of hardships is presumed to favor
11        possession by petitioner unless the presumption is
12        rebutted by a preponderance of the evidence, showing
13        that the hardships to respondent substantially
14        outweigh the hardships to petitioner and any minor
15        child or dependent adult in petitioner's care. The
16        court, on the request of petitioner or on its own
17        motion, may order respondent to provide suitable,
18        accessible, alternate housing for petitioner instead
19        of excluding respondent from a mutual residence or
20        household.
21        (3) Stay away order and additional prohibitions. Order
22    respondent to stay away from petitioner or any other
23    person protected by the order of protection, or prohibit
24    respondent from entering or remaining present at
25    petitioner's school, place of employment, or other
26    specified places at times when petitioner is present, or

 

 

SB3171- 470 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    both, if reasonable, given the balance of hardships.
2    Hardships need not be balanced for the court to enter a
3    stay away order or prohibit entry if respondent has no
4    right to enter the premises.
5            (A) If an order of protection grants petitioner
6        exclusive possession of the residence, or prohibits
7        respondent from entering the residence, or orders
8        respondent to stay away from petitioner or other
9        protected persons, then the court may allow respondent
10        access to the residence to remove items of clothing
11        and personal adornment used exclusively by respondent,
12        medications, and other items as the court directs. The
13        right to access shall be exercised on only one
14        occasion as the court directs and in the presence of an
15        agreed-upon adult third party or law enforcement
16        officer.
17            (B) When the petitioner and the respondent attend
18        the same public, private, or non-public elementary,
19        middle, or high school, the court when issuing an
20        order of protection and providing relief shall
21        consider the severity of the act, any continuing
22        physical danger or emotional distress to the
23        petitioner, the educational rights guaranteed to the
24        petitioner and respondent under federal and State law,
25        the availability of a transfer of the respondent to
26        another school, a change of placement or a change of

 

 

SB3171- 471 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        program of the respondent, the expense, difficulty,
2        and educational disruption that would be caused by a
3        transfer of the respondent to another school, and any
4        other relevant facts of the case. The court may order
5        that the respondent not attend the public, private, or
6        non-public elementary, middle, or high school attended
7        by the petitioner, order that the respondent accept a
8        change of placement or change of program, as
9        determined by the school district or private or
10        non-public school, or place restrictions on the
11        respondent's movements within the school attended by
12        the petitioner. The respondent bears the burden of
13        proving by a preponderance of the evidence that a
14        transfer, change of placement, or change of program of
15        the respondent is not available. The respondent also
16        bears the burden of production with respect to the
17        expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that
18        would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to
19        another school. A transfer, change of placement, or
20        change of program is not unavailable to the respondent
21        solely on the ground that the respondent does not
22        agree with the school district's or private or
23        non-public school's transfer, change of placement, or
24        change of program or solely on the ground that the
25        respondent fails or refuses to consent or otherwise
26        does not take an action required to effectuate a

 

 

SB3171- 472 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        transfer, change of placement, or change of program.
2        When a court orders a respondent to stay away from the
3        public, private, or non-public school attended by the
4        petitioner and the respondent requests a transfer to
5        another attendance center within the respondent's
6        school district or private or non-public school, the
7        school district or private or non-public school shall
8        have sole discretion to determine the attendance
9        center to which the respondent is transferred. In the
10        event the court order results in a transfer of the
11        minor respondent to another attendance center, a
12        change in the respondent's placement, or a change of
13        the respondent's program, the parents, guardian, or
14        legal custodian of the respondent is responsible for
15        transportation and other costs associated with the
16        transfer or change.
17            (C) The court may order the parents, guardian, or
18        legal custodian of a minor respondent to take certain
19        actions or to refrain from taking certain actions to
20        ensure that the respondent complies with the order. In
21        the event the court orders a transfer of the
22        respondent to another school, the parents, guardian,
23        or legal custodian of the respondent is responsible
24        for transportation and other costs associated with the
25        change of school by the respondent.
26        (4) Counseling. Require or recommend the respondent to

 

 

SB3171- 473 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    undergo counseling for a specified duration with a social
2    worker, psychologist, clinical psychologist,
3    psychiatrist, family service agency, alcohol or substance
4    abuse program, mental health center guidance counselor,
5    agency providing services to elders, program designed for
6    domestic violence abusers or any other guidance service
7    the court deems appropriate. The Court may order the
8    respondent in any intimate partner relationship to report
9    to an Illinois Department of Human Services protocol
10    approved partner abuse intervention program for an
11    assessment and to follow all recommended treatment.
12        (5) Physical care and possession of the minor child.
13    In order to protect the minor child from abuse, neglect,
14    or unwarranted separation from the person who has been the
15    minor child's primary caretaker, or to otherwise protect
16    the well-being of the minor child, the court may do either
17    or both of the following: (i) grant petitioner physical
18    care or possession of the minor child, or both, or (ii)
19    order respondent to return a minor child to, or not remove
20    a minor child from, the physical care of a parent or person
21    in loco parentis.
22        If a court finds, after a hearing, that respondent has
23    committed abuse (as defined in Section 103) of a minor
24    child, there shall be a rebuttable presumption that
25    awarding physical care to respondent would not be in the
26    minor child's best interest.

 

 

SB3171- 474 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        (6) Temporary allocation of parental responsibilities:
2    significant decision-making. Award temporary
3    decision-making responsibility to petitioner in accordance
4    with this Section, the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution
5    of Marriage Act, the Illinois Parentage Act of 2015, and
6    this State's Uniform Child-Custody Jurisdiction and
7    Enforcement Act.
8        If a court finds, after a hearing, that respondent has
9    committed abuse (as defined in Section 103) of a minor
10    child, there shall be a rebuttable presumption that
11    awarding temporary significant decision-making
12    responsibility to respondent would not be in the child's
13    best interest.
14        (7) Parenting time. Determine the parenting time, if
15    any, of respondent in any case in which the court awards
16    physical care or allocates temporary significant
17    decision-making responsibility of a minor child to
18    petitioner. The court shall restrict or deny respondent's
19    parenting time with a minor child if the court finds that
20    respondent has done or is likely to do any of the
21    following: (i) abuse or endanger the minor child during
22    parenting time; (ii) use the parenting time as an
23    opportunity to abuse or harass petitioner or petitioner's
24    family or household members; (iii) improperly conceal or
25    detain the minor child; or (iv) otherwise act in a manner
26    that is not in the best interests of the minor child. The

 

 

SB3171- 475 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    court shall not be limited by the standards set forth in
2    Section 603.10 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of
3    Marriage Act. If the court grants parenting time, the
4    order shall specify dates and times for the parenting time
5    to take place or other specific parameters or conditions
6    that are appropriate. No order for parenting time shall
7    refer merely to the term "reasonable parenting time".
8        Petitioner may deny respondent access to the minor
9    child if, when respondent arrives for parenting time,
10    respondent is under the influence of drugs or alcohol and
11    constitutes a threat to the safety and well-being of
12    petitioner or petitioner's minor children or is behaving
13    in a violent or abusive manner.
14        If necessary to protect any member of petitioner's
15    family or household from future abuse, respondent shall be
16    prohibited from coming to petitioner's residence to meet
17    the minor child for parenting time, and the parties shall
18    submit to the court their recommendations for reasonable
19    alternative arrangements for parenting time. A person may
20    be approved to supervise parenting time only after filing
21    an affidavit accepting that responsibility and
22    acknowledging accountability to the court.
23        (8) Removal or concealment of minor child. Prohibit
24    respondent from removing a minor child from the State or
25    concealing the child within the State.
26        (9) Order to appear. Order the respondent to appear in

 

 

SB3171- 476 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    court, alone or with a minor child, to prevent abuse,
2    neglect, removal or concealment of the child, to return
3    the child to the custody or care of the petitioner or to
4    permit any court-ordered interview or examination of the
5    child or the respondent.
6        (10) Possession of personal property. Grant petitioner
7    exclusive possession of personal property and, if
8    respondent has possession or control, direct respondent to
9    promptly make it available to petitioner, if:
10            (i) petitioner, but not respondent, owns the
11        property; or
12            (ii) the parties own the property jointly; sharing
13        it would risk abuse of petitioner by respondent or is
14        impracticable; and the balance of hardships favors
15        temporary possession by petitioner.
16        If petitioner's sole claim to ownership of the
17    property is that it is marital property, the court may
18    award petitioner temporary possession thereof under the
19    standards of subparagraph (ii) of this paragraph only if a
20    proper proceeding has been filed under the Illinois
21    Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as now or
22    hereafter amended.
23        No order under this provision shall affect title to
24    property.
25        (11) Protection of property. Forbid the respondent
26    from taking, transferring, encumbering, concealing,

 

 

SB3171- 477 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    damaging or otherwise disposing of any real or personal
2    property, except as explicitly authorized by the court,
3    if:
4            (i) petitioner, but not respondent, owns the
5        property; or
6            (ii) the parties own the property jointly, and the
7        balance of hardships favors granting this remedy.
8        If petitioner's sole claim to ownership of the
9    property is that it is marital property, the court may
10    grant petitioner relief under subparagraph (ii) of this
11    paragraph only if a proper proceeding has been filed under
12    the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as
13    now or hereafter amended.
14        The court may further prohibit respondent from
15    improperly using the financial or other resources of an
16    aged member of the family or household for the profit or
17    advantage of respondent or of any other person.
18        (11.5) Protection of animals. Grant the petitioner the
19    exclusive care, custody, or control of any animal owned,
20    possessed, leased, kept, or held by either the petitioner
21    or the respondent or a minor child residing in the
22    residence or household of either the petitioner or the
23    respondent and order the respondent to stay away from the
24    animal and forbid the respondent from taking,
25    transferring, encumbering, concealing, harming, or
26    otherwise disposing of the animal.

 

 

SB3171- 478 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        (12) Order for payment of support. Order respondent to
2    pay temporary support for the petitioner or any child in
3    the petitioner's care or over whom the petitioner has been
4    allocated parental responsibility, when the respondent has
5    a legal obligation to support that person, in accordance
6    with the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage
7    Act, which shall govern, among other matters, the amount
8    of support, payment through the clerk and withholding of
9    income to secure payment. An order for child support may
10    be granted to a petitioner with lawful physical care of a
11    child, or an order or agreement for physical care of a
12    child, prior to entry of an order allocating significant
13    decision-making responsibility. Such a support order shall
14    expire upon entry of a valid order allocating parental
15    responsibility differently and vacating the petitioner's
16    significant decision-making authority, unless otherwise
17    provided in the order.
18        (13) Order for payment of losses. Order respondent to
19    pay petitioner for losses suffered as a direct result of
20    the abuse, neglect, or exploitation. Such losses shall
21    include, but not be limited to, medical expenses, lost
22    earnings or other support, repair or replacement of
23    property damaged or taken, reasonable attorney's fees,
24    court costs and moving or other travel expenses, including
25    additional reasonable expenses for temporary shelter and
26    restaurant meals.

 

 

SB3171- 479 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1            (i) Losses affecting family needs. If a party is
2        entitled to seek maintenance, child support or
3        property distribution from the other party under the
4        Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as
5        now or hereafter amended, the court may order
6        respondent to reimburse petitioner's actual losses, to
7        the extent that such reimbursement would be
8        "appropriate temporary relief", as authorized by
9        subsection (a)(3) of Section 501 of that Act.
10            (ii) Recovery of expenses. In the case of an
11        improper concealment or removal of a minor child, the
12        court may order respondent to pay the reasonable
13        expenses incurred or to be incurred in the search for
14        and recovery of the minor child, including but not
15        limited to legal fees, court costs, private
16        investigator fees, and travel costs.
17        (14) Prohibition of entry. Prohibit the respondent
18    from entering or remaining in the residence or household
19    while the respondent is under the influence of alcohol or
20    drugs and constitutes a threat to the safety and
21    well-being of the petitioner or the petitioner's children.
22        (14.5) Prohibition of possession of firearms and
23    firearm parts; search and seizure of firearms and firearms
24    parts.
25            (A)(i) Prohibit a respondent against whom an
26        emergency, interim, or plenary order of protection was

 

 

SB3171- 480 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        issued from possessing, during the duration of the
2        order, any firearms or firearm parts that could be
3        assembled into an operable firearm if a search warrant
4        is issued under (A-1) or the order:
5                (aa) was issued after a hearing of which such
6            person received actual notice, and at which such
7            person had an opportunity to participate, or the
8            petitioner has satisfied the requirements of
9            Section 217;
10                (bb) restrains such person from using physical
11            force; harassing, stalking, or threatening an
12            intimate partner of such person or child of such
13            intimate partner or person; or engaging in other
14            conduct that would place an intimate partner in
15            reasonable fear of bodily injury to the partner or
16            child; and
17                (cc) includes a finding that such person
18            represents a credible threat to the physical
19            safety of such intimate partner or child.
20            (ii) The court shall order any respondent
21        prohibited from possessing firearms under item (i) of
22        subparagraph (A) to surrender any firearms or firearm
23        parts that could be assembled to make an operable
24        firearm. Any firearms or firearm parts on the
25        respondent's person or at the place of service shall
26        be surrendered to the serving officers at the time of

 

 

SB3171- 481 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        service of the order of protection, and any other
2        firearms or firearm parts shall be surrendered to
3        local law enforcement within 24 hours of service of
4        the order of protection. Any Firearm Owner's
5        Identification Card or Concealed Carry License in the
6        possession of the respondent, except as provided in
7        subparagraph (B), shall also be ordered by the court
8        to be turned over to the officer serving the order of
9        protection at the time of service or, if not on the
10        respondent's person or at the location where the
11        respondent is served at the time of service, to local
12        law enforcement within 24 hours of service of the
13        order of protection. The law enforcement agency shall
14        immediately mail the card, as well as any license, to
15        the Illinois State Police Firearm Owner's
16        Identification Card Office for safekeeping.
17            (A-1)(i) Upon issuance of an emergency, interim,
18        or plenary order of protection and subject to the
19        provisions of item (ii) of this subparagraph (A-1),
20        the court shall issue a search warrant for the seizure
21        of any firearms or firearm parts that could be
22        assembled to make an operable firearm belonging to the
23        respondent if the court, based upon sworn testimony,
24        finds that:
25                (aa) the respondent poses a credible threat to
26            the physical safety of the petitioner protected by

 

 

SB3171- 482 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1            the order of protection; and
2                (bb) probable cause exists to believe that:
3                    (I) the respondent possesses firearms or
4                firearm parts that could be assembled to make
5                an operable firearm;
6                    (II) the firearms or firearm parts that
7                could be assembled to make an operable firearm
8                are located at the residence, vehicle, or
9                other property of the respondent to be
10                searched; and
11                    (III) the credible threat to the physical
12                safety of the petitioner protected by the
13                order of protection is immediate and present.
14            The record shall reflect the court's findings in
15        determining whether the search warrant shall be
16        issued.
17            (ii) If the petitioner does not seek a warrant
18        under this subparagraph (A-1) or the court determines
19        that the requirements of this subparagraph (A-1) have
20        not been met, relief under subparagraph (A) alone may
21        be granted.
22            (iii) An ex parte search warrant shall be granted
23        under this subparagraph (A-1) only if the court finds
24        that:
25                (aa) the elements of item (i) of subparagraph
26            (A-1) have been met;

 

 

SB3171- 483 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1                (bb) personal injury to the petitioner is
2            likely to occur if the respondent received prior
3            notice; and
4                (cc) the petitioner has otherwise satisfied
5            the requirements of Section 217 of this Act.
6            (iv) Oral testimony is sufficient in lieu of an
7        affidavit to support a finding of probable cause.
8            (v) A search warrant issued under this
9        subparagraph (A-1) shall be directed by the court for
10        enforcement to the law enforcement agency with primary
11        responsibility for responding to calls for service at
12        the location to be searched or to another appropriate
13        law enforcement agency if justified by the
14        circumstances. The search warrant shall specify with
15        particularity the scope of the search, including the
16        property to be searched, and shall direct the law
17        enforcement agency to seize the respondent's firearms
18        and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an
19        operable firearm. Law enforcement shall also be
20        directed to seize any Firearm Owner's Identification
21        Card and any Concealed Carry License belonging to the
22        respondent.
23             (vi) The petitioner shall prepare an information
24        sheet, reviewed by the court, for law enforcement at
25        the time the warrant is granted. The information sheet
26        shall include:

 

 

SB3171- 484 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1                (aa) contact information for the petitioner,
2            the petitioner's attorney, or both, including a
3            telephone number and email, if available;
4                (bb) a physical description of the respondent,
5            including the respondent's date of birth, if
6            known, or approximate age, height, weight, race,
7            and hair color;
8                (cc) days and times that the respondent is
9            likely to be at the property to be searched, if
10            known; and
11                (dd) whether people other than the respondent
12            are likely to be present at the property to be
13            searched and when, if known.
14            (vii) The information sheet shall be transmitted
15        to the law enforcement agency to which the search
16        warrant is directed in the same manner as the warrant
17        is transmitted under Section 222 of this Act.
18            (viii) If the court, after determining a search
19        warrant should issue, finds that the petitioner has
20        made a credible report of domestic violence to the
21        local law enforcement agency within the previous 90
22        days, law enforcement shall execute the warrant no
23        later than 96 hours after receipt of the warrant. If
24        the court finds that petitioner has not made such a
25        report, the law enforcement agency to which the court
26        has directed the warrant shall, within 48 hours of

 

 

SB3171- 485 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        receipt, evaluate the warrant and seek any corrections
2        to the warrant, and, if applicable, add to or negate
3        the warrant. The record shall reflect the court's
4        findings in determining whether to correct, add, or
5        negate the warrant. If a change is made regarding the
6        search warrant, law enforcement shall execute the
7        warrant no later than 96 hours after the correction is
8        issued. The law enforcement agency shall notify the
9        petitioner of any changes to the warrant or if the
10        warrant has been negated. The law enforcement agency
11        to which the court has directed the warrant may
12        coordinate with other law enforcement agencies to
13        execute the warrant. A return of the warrant shall be
14        filed by the law enforcement agency within 24 hours of
15        execution, setting forth the time, date, and location
16        where the warrant was executed and what items, if any,
17        were seized. If the court is not in session, the return
18        information shall be returned on the next date the
19        court is in session. Subject to the provisions of this
20        Section, peace officers shall have the same authority
21        to execute a warrant issued pursuant to this
22        subsection as a warrant issued under Article 108 of
23        the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.
24            (ix) Upon discovering a defect in the search
25        warrant, the appropriate law enforcement agency may
26        petition the court to correct the warrant. The law

 

 

SB3171- 486 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        enforcement agency shall notify the petitioner of any
2        such correction.
3            (x) Upon petition by the appropriate law
4        enforcement agency, the court may modify the search
5        warrant or extend the time to execute the search
6        warrant for a period of no more than 96 hours. In
7        determining whether to modify or extend the warrant,
8        the court shall consider:
9                (aa) any increased risk to the petitioner's
10            safety that may result from a modification or
11            extension of the warrant;
12                (bb) any unnecessary risk to law enforcement
13            that would be mitigated by a modification or
14            extension of the warrant;
15                (cc) any risks to third parties at the
16            location to be searched that would be mitigated by
17            a modification or extension of the warrant; and
18                (dd) the likelihood of successful execution of
19            warrant.
20            The record shall reflect the court's findings in
21        determining whether to extend or modify the warrant.
22        The law enforcement agency shall notify the petitioner
23        of any modification or extension of the warrant.
24            (xi) Service of any order of protection shall, to
25        the extent possible, be concurrent with the execution
26        of any search warrant under this paragraph.

 

 

SB3171- 487 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1            (B) If the respondent is a peace officer as
2        defined in Section 2-13 of the Criminal Code of 2012,
3        the court shall order that any firearms used by the
4        respondent in the performance of his or her duties as a
5        peace officer be surrendered to the chief law
6        enforcement executive of the agency in which the
7        respondent is employed, who shall retain the firearms
8        for safekeeping for the duration of the order of
9        protection.
10            (C)(i) Any firearms or firearm parts that could be
11        assembled to make an operable firearm shall be kept by
12        the law enforcement agency that took possession of the
13        items for safekeeping, except as provided in
14        subparagraph (B). The period of safekeeping shall be
15        for the duration of the order of protection. Except as
16        provided in subparagraph (E), the respondent is
17        prohibited from transferring firearms or firearm parts
18        to another individual in lieu of surrender to law
19        enforcement. The law enforcement agency shall provide
20        an itemized statement of receipt to the respondent and
21        the court describing any seized or surrendered
22        firearms or firearm parts and informing the respondent
23        that the respondent may seek the return of the
24        respondent's items at the end of the order of
25        protection. The law enforcement agency may enter
26        arrangements, as needed, with federally licensed

 

 

SB3171- 488 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        firearm dealers or other law enforcement agencies for
2        the storage of any firearms seized or surrendered
3        under this subsection.
4            (ii) It is the respondent's responsibility to
5        request the return or reinstatement of any Firearm
6        Owner's Identification Card or Concealed Carry License
7        and notify the Illinois State Police Firearm Owner's
8        Identification Card Office at the end of the Order of
9        Protection.
10            (iii) At the end of the order of protection, a
11        respondent may request the return of any seized or
12        surrendered firearms or firearm parts that could be
13        assembled to make an operable firearm. Such firearms
14        or firearm parts shall be returned within 14 days of
15        the request to the respondent, if the respondent is
16        lawfully eligible to possess firearms, or to a
17        designated third party who is lawfully eligible to
18        possess firearms. If the firearms or firearm parts
19        cannot be returned to respondent because (1) the
20        respondent has not requested the return or transfer of
21        the firearms or firearm parts as set forth in this
22        subparagraph, and (2) the respondent cannot be located
23        or fails to respond to more than 3 requests to retrieve
24        the firearms or firearm parts the court may, or is not
25        lawfully eligible to possess a firearm, upon petition
26        from the appropriate law enforcement agency and notice

 

 

SB3171- 489 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        to the respondent at the respondent's last known
2        address, order the law enforcement agency to destroy
3        the firearms or firearm parts; use the firearms or
4        firearm parts for training purposes or for any other
5        application as deemed appropriate by the law
6        enforcement agency; or turn over the firearm or
7        firearm parts to a third party who is lawfully
8        eligible to possess firearms, and who does not reside
9        with respondent.
10            (D)(i) If a person other than the respondent
11        claims title to any firearms and firearm parts that
12        could be assembled to make an operable firearm seized
13        or surrendered under this subsection, the person may
14        petition the court to have the firearm and firearm
15        parts that could be assembled to make an operable
16        firearm returned to him or her with proper notice to
17        the petitioner and respondent. If, at a hearing on the
18        petition, the court determines the person to be the
19        lawful owner of the firearm and firearm parts that
20        could be assembled to make an operable firearm, the
21        firearm and firearm parts that could be assembled to
22        make an operable firearm shall be returned to the
23        person, provided that:
24                (aa) the firearm and firearm parts that could
25            be assembled to make an operable firearm are
26            removed from the respondent's custody, control, or

 

 

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1            possession and the lawful owner agrees to store
2            the firearm and firearm parts that could be
3            assembled to make an operable firearm in a manner
4            such that the respondent does not have access to
5            or control of the firearm and firearm parts that
6            could be assembled to make an operable firearm;
7            and
8                 (bb) the firearm and firearm parts that could
9            be assembled to make an operable firearm are not
10            otherwise unlawfully possessed by the owner.
11            (ii) The person petitioning for the return of his
12        or her firearm and firearm parts that could be
13        assembled to make an operable firearm must swear or
14        affirm by affidavit that he or she:
15                (aa) is the lawful owner of the firearm and
16            firearm parts that could be assembled to make an
17            operable firearm;
18                (bb) shall not transfer the firearm and
19            firearm parts that could be assembled to make an
20            operable firearm to the respondent; and
21                (cc) will store the firearm and firearm parts
22            that could be assembled to make an operable
23            firearm in a manner that the respondent does not
24            have access to or control of the firearm and
25            firearm parts that could be assembled to make an
26            operable firearm.

 

 

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1            (E)(i) The respondent may file a motion to
2        transfer, at the next scheduled hearing, any seized or
3        surrendered firearms or firearm parts to a third
4        party. Notice of the motion shall be provided to the
5        petitioner and the third party must appear at the
6        hearing.
7            (ii) The court may order transfer of the seized or
8        surrendered firearm or firearm parts only if:
9                (aa) the third party transferee affirms by
10            affidavit to the open court that:
11                    (I) the third party transferee does not
12                reside with the respondent;
13                    (II) the respondent does not have access
14                to the location in which the third party
15                transferee intends to keep the firearms or
16                firearm parts;
17                    (III) the third party transferee will not
18                transfer the firearm or firearm parts to the
19                respondent or anyone who resides with the
20                respondent;
21                    (IV) the third party transferee will
22                maintain control and possession of the firearm
23                or firearm parts until otherwise ordered by
24                the court; and
25                    (V) the third party transferee will be
26                subject to criminal penalties for transferring

 

 

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1                the firearms or firearm parts to the
2                respondent; and
3                (bb) the court finds that:
4                    (I) the respondent holds a valid Firearm
5                Owner's Identification; and
6                    (II) the transfer of firearms or firearm
7                parts to the third party transferee does not
8                place the petitioner or any other protected
9                parties at any additional threat or risk of
10                harm.
11        (15) Prohibition of access to records. If an order of
12    protection prohibits respondent from having contact with
13    the minor child, or if petitioner's address is omitted
14    under subsection (b) of Section 203, or if necessary to
15    prevent abuse or wrongful removal or concealment of a
16    minor child, the order shall deny respondent access to,
17    and prohibit respondent from inspecting, obtaining, or
18    attempting to inspect or obtain, school or any other
19    records of the minor child who is in the care of
20    petitioner.
21        (16) Order for payment of shelter services. Order
22    respondent to reimburse a shelter providing temporary
23    housing and counseling services to the petitioner for the
24    cost of the services, as certified by the shelter and
25    deemed reasonable by the court.
26        (17) Order for injunctive relief. Enter injunctive

 

 

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1    relief necessary or appropriate to prevent further abuse
2    of a family or household member or further abuse, neglect,
3    or exploitation of a high-risk adult with disabilities or
4    to effectuate one of the granted remedies, if supported by
5    the balance of hardships. If the harm to be prevented by
6    the injunction is abuse or any other harm that one of the
7    remedies listed in paragraphs (1) through (16) of this
8    subsection is designed to prevent, no further evidence is
9    necessary that the harm is an irreparable injury.
10        (18) Telephone services.
11            (A) Unless a condition described in subparagraph
12        (B) of this paragraph exists, the court may, upon
13        request by the petitioner, order a wireless telephone
14        service provider to transfer to the petitioner the
15        right to continue to use a telephone number or numbers
16        indicated by the petitioner and the financial
17        responsibility associated with the number or numbers,
18        as set forth in subparagraph (C) of this paragraph.
19        For purposes of this paragraph (18), the term
20        "wireless telephone service provider" means a provider
21        of commercial mobile service as defined in 47 U.S.C.
22        332. The petitioner may request the transfer of each
23        telephone number that the petitioner, or a minor child
24        in his or her custody, uses. The clerk of the court
25        shall serve the order on the wireless telephone
26        service provider's agent for service of process

 

 

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1        provided to the Illinois Commerce Commission. The
2        order shall contain all of the following:
3                (i) The name and billing telephone number of
4            the account holder including the name of the
5            wireless telephone service provider that serves
6            the account.
7                (ii) Each telephone number that will be
8            transferred.
9                (iii) A statement that the provider transfers
10            to the petitioner all financial responsibility for
11            and right to the use of any telephone number
12            transferred under this paragraph.
13            (B) A wireless telephone service provider shall
14        terminate the respondent's use of, and shall transfer
15        to the petitioner use of, the telephone number or
16        numbers indicated in subparagraph (A) of this
17        paragraph unless it notifies the petitioner, within 72
18        hours after it receives the order, that one of the
19        following applies:
20                (i) The account holder named in the order has
21            terminated the account.
22                (ii) A difference in network technology would
23            prevent or impair the functionality of a device on
24            a network if the transfer occurs.
25                (iii) The transfer would cause a geographic or
26            other limitation on network or service provision

 

 

SB3171- 495 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1            to the petitioner.
2                (iv) Another technological or operational
3            issue would prevent or impair the use of the
4            telephone number if the transfer occurs.
5            (C) The petitioner assumes all financial
6        responsibility for and right to the use of any
7        telephone number transferred under this paragraph. In
8        this paragraph, "financial responsibility" includes
9        monthly service costs and costs associated with any
10        mobile device associated with the number.
11            (D) A wireless telephone service provider may
12        apply to the petitioner its routine and customary
13        requirements for establishing an account or
14        transferring a number, including requiring the
15        petitioner to provide proof of identification,
16        financial information, and customer preferences.
17            (E) Except for willful or wanton misconduct, a
18        wireless telephone service provider is immune from
19        civil liability for its actions taken in compliance
20        with a court order issued under this paragraph.
21            (F) All wireless service providers that provide
22        services to residential customers shall provide to the
23        Illinois Commerce Commission the name and address of
24        an agent for service of orders entered under this
25        paragraph (18). Any change in status of the registered
26        agent must be reported to the Illinois Commerce

 

 

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1        Commission within 30 days of such change.
2            (G) The Illinois Commerce Commission shall
3        maintain the list of registered agents for service for
4        each wireless telephone service provider on the
5        Commission's website. The Commission may consult with
6        wireless telephone service providers and the Circuit
7        Court Clerks on the manner in which this information
8        is provided and displayed.
9    (c) Relevant factors; findings.
10        (1) In determining whether to grant a specific remedy,
11    other than payment of support, the court shall consider
12    relevant factors, including but not limited to the
13    following:
14            (i) the nature, frequency, severity, pattern and
15        consequences of the respondent's past abuse, neglect
16        or exploitation of the petitioner or any family or
17        household member, including the concealment of his or
18        her location in order to evade service of process or
19        notice, and the likelihood of danger of future abuse,
20        neglect, or exploitation to petitioner or any member
21        of petitioner's or respondent's family or household;
22        and
23            (ii) the danger that any minor child will be
24        abused or neglected or improperly relocated from the
25        jurisdiction, improperly concealed within the State or
26        improperly separated from the child's primary

 

 

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1        caretaker.
2        (2) In comparing relative hardships resulting to the
3    parties from loss of possession of the family home, the
4    court shall consider relevant factors, including but not
5    limited to the following:
6            (i) availability, accessibility, cost, safety,
7        adequacy, location and other characteristics of
8        alternate housing for each party and any minor child
9        or dependent adult in the party's care;
10            (ii) the effect on the party's employment; and
11            (iii) the effect on the relationship of the party,
12        and any minor child or dependent adult in the party's
13        care, to family, school, church and community.
14        (3) Subject to the exceptions set forth in paragraph
15    (4) of this subsection, the court shall make its findings
16    in an official record or in writing, and shall at a minimum
17    set forth the following:
18            (i) That the court has considered the applicable
19        relevant factors described in paragraphs (1) and (2)
20        of this subsection.
21            (ii) Whether the conduct or actions of respondent,
22        unless prohibited, will likely cause irreparable harm
23        or continued abuse.
24            (iii) Whether it is necessary to grant the
25        requested relief in order to protect petitioner or
26        other alleged abused persons.

 

 

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1        (4) For purposes of issuing an ex parte emergency
2    order of protection, the court, as an alternative to or as
3    a supplement to making the findings described in
4    paragraphs (c)(3)(i) through (c)(3)(iii) of this
5    subsection, may use the following procedure:
6        When a verified petition for an emergency order of
7    protection in accordance with the requirements of Sections
8    203 and 217 is presented to the court, the court shall
9    examine petitioner on oath or affirmation. An emergency
10    order of protection shall be issued by the court if it
11    appears from the contents of the petition and the
12    examination of petitioner that the averments are
13    sufficient to indicate abuse by respondent and to support
14    the granting of relief under the issuance of the emergency
15    order of protection.
16        (5) Never married parties. No rights or
17    responsibilities for a minor child born outside of
18    marriage attach to a putative father until a father and
19    child relationship has been established under the Illinois
20    Parentage Act of 1984, the Illinois Parentage Act of 2015,
21    the Illinois Public Aid Code, Section 12 of the Vital
22    Records Act, the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, the Probate
23    Act of 1975, the Revised Uniform Reciprocal Enforcement of
24    Support Act, the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act,
25    the Expedited Child Support Act of 1990, any judicial,
26    administrative, or other act of another state or

 

 

SB3171- 499 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    territory, any other Illinois statute, or by any foreign
2    nation establishing the father and child relationship, any
3    other proceeding substantially in conformity with the
4    Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity
5    Reconciliation Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-193), or where
6    both parties appeared in open court or at an
7    administrative hearing acknowledging under oath or
8    admitting by affirmation the existence of a father and
9    child relationship. Absent such an adjudication, finding,
10    or acknowledgment, no putative father shall be granted
11    temporary allocation of parental responsibilities,
12    including parenting time with the minor child, or physical
13    care and possession of the minor child, nor shall an order
14    of payment for support of the minor child be entered.
15    (d) Balance of hardships; findings. If the court finds
16that the balance of hardships does not support the granting of
17a remedy governed by paragraph (2), (3), (10), (11), or (16) of
18subsection (b) of this Section, which may require such
19balancing, the court's findings shall so indicate and shall
20include a finding as to whether granting the remedy will
21result in hardship to respondent that would substantially
22outweigh the hardship to petitioner from denial of the remedy.
23The findings shall be an official record or in writing.
24    (e) Denial of remedies. Denial of any remedy shall not be
25based, in whole or in part, on evidence that:
26        (1) Respondent has cause for any use of force, unless

 

 

SB3171- 500 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    that cause satisfies the standards for justifiable use of
2    force provided by Article 7 of the Criminal Code of 2012;
3        (2) Respondent was voluntarily intoxicated;
4        (3) Petitioner acted in self-defense or defense of
5    another, provided that, if petitioner utilized force, such
6    force was justifiable under Article 7 of the Criminal Code
7    of 2012;
8        (4) Petitioner did not act in self-defense or defense
9    of another;
10        (5) Petitioner left the residence or household to
11    avoid further abuse, neglect, or exploitation by
12    respondent;
13        (6) Petitioner did not leave the residence or
14    household to avoid further abuse, neglect, or exploitation
15    by respondent;
16        (7) Conduct by any family or household member excused
17    the abuse, neglect, or exploitation by respondent, unless
18    that same conduct would have excused such abuse, neglect,
19    or exploitation if the parties had not been family or
20    household members.
21(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 103-1065, eff. 5-11-25.)
 
22    Section 110. The Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act is
23amended by changing Section 15-705 as follows:
 
24    (765 ILCS 1026/15-705)

 

 

SB3171- 501 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    Sec. 15-705. Exceptions to the sale of tangible property.
2The administrator shall dispose of tangible property
3identified by this Section in accordance with this Section.
4    (a) Military medals or decorations. The administrator may
5not sell a medal or decoration awarded for military service in
6the armed forces of the United States. Instead, the
7administrator, with the consent of the respective organization
8under paragraph (1), agency under paragraph (2), or entity
9under paragraph (3), may deliver a medal or decoration to be
10held in custody for the owner, to:
11        (1) a military veterans organization qualified under
12    Section 501(c)(19) of the Internal Revenue Code;
13        (2) the agency that awarded the medal or decoration;
14    or
15        (3) a governmental entity.
16    After delivery, the administrator is not responsible for
17the safekeeping of the medal or decoration.
18    (b) Property with historical value. Property that the
19administrator reasonably believes may have historical value
20may be, at his or her discretion, loaned to an accredited
21museum in the United States where it will be kept until such
22time as the administrator orders it to be returned to his or
23her custody.
24    (c) Human remains. If human remains are delivered to the
25administrator under this Act, the administrator shall deliver
26those human remains to the coroner of the county in which the

 

 

SB3171- 502 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1human remains were abandoned for disposition under Section
23-3034 of the Counties Code. The only human remains that may be
3delivered to the administrator under this Act and that the
4administrator may receive are those that are reported and
5delivered as contents of a safe deposit box.
6    (d) Evidence in a criminal investigation. Property that
7may have been used in the commission of a crime or that may
8assist in the investigation of a crime, as determined after
9consulting with the Illinois State Police, shall be delivered
10to the Illinois State Police or other appropriate law
11enforcement authority to allow law enforcement to determine
12whether a criminal investigation should take place. Any such
13property delivered to a law enforcement authority shall be
14held in accordance with existing statutes and rules related to
15the gathering, retention, and release of evidence.
16    (e) Firearms.
17        (1) The administrator, in cooperation with the
18    Illinois State Police, shall develop a procedure to
19    determine whether a firearm delivered to the administrator
20    under this Act has been stolen or used in the commission of
21    a crime. The Illinois State Police shall determine the
22    appropriate disposition of a firearm that has been stolen
23    or used in the commission of a crime. The administrator
24    shall attempt to return a firearm that has not been stolen
25    or used in the commission of a crime to the rightful owner
26    if the Illinois State Police determines that the owner may

 

 

SB3171- 503 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    lawfully possess the firearm.
2        (2) If the administrator is unable to return a firearm
3    to its owner, the administrator shall transfer custody of
4    the firearm to the Illinois State Police. Legal title to a
5    firearm transferred to the Illinois State Police under
6    this subsection (e) is vested in the Illinois State Police
7    by operation of law if:
8            (i) the administrator cannot locate the owner of
9        the firearm;
10            (ii) the owner of the firearm may not lawfully
11        possess the firearm;
12            (iii) the apparent owner does not respond to
13        notice published under Section 15-503 of this Act; or
14            (iv) the apparent owner responds to notice
15        published under Section 15-502 and states that he or
16        she no longer claims an interest in the firearm.
17        (3) With respect to a firearm whose title is
18    transferred to the Illinois State Police under this
19    subsection (e), the Illinois State Police may:
20            (i) retain the firearm for use by the crime
21        laboratory system, for training purposes, or for any
22        other application as deemed appropriate by the
23        Department;
24            (ii) transfer the firearm to the Illinois State
25        Museum if the firearm has historical value; or
26            (iii) destroy the firearm if it is not retained

 

 

SB3171- 504 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        pursuant to subparagraph (i) or transferred pursuant
2        to subparagraph (ii).
3    As used in this subsection, "firearm" has the meaning
4provided in Section 2-7.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 the
5Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.
6(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)
 
7    Section 115. The Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business
8Practices Act is amended by changing Section 2DDDD as follows:
 
9    (815 ILCS 505/2DDDD)
10    Sec. 2DDDD. Sale and marketing of firearms.
11    (a) As used in this Section:
12    "Firearm" has the meaning set forth in Section 2-7.5 of
13the Criminal Code of 2012 1.1 of the Firearm Owners
14Identification Card Act.
15    "Firearm accessory" means an attachment or device designed
16or adapted to be inserted into, affixed onto, or used in
17conjunction with a firearm that is designed, intended, or
18functions to alter or enhance (i) the firing capabilities of a
19firearm, frame, or receiver, (ii) the lethality of the
20firearm, or (iii) a shooter's ability to hold and use a
21firearm.
22    "Firearm ammunition" has the meaning set forth in Section
232-7.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1.1 of the Firearm Owners
24Identification Card Act.

 

 

SB3171- 505 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    "Firearm industry member" means a person, firm,
2corporation, company, partnership, society, joint stock
3company, or any other entity or association engaged in the
4design, manufacture, distribution, importation, marketing,
5wholesale, or retail sale of firearm-related products,
6including sales by mail, telephone, or Internet or in-person
7sales.
8    "Firearm-related product" means a firearm, firearm
9ammunition, a firearm precursor part, a firearm component, or
10a firearm accessory that meets any of the following
11conditions:
12        (1) the item is sold, made, or distributed in
13    Illinois;
14        (2) the item is intended to be sold or distributed in
15    Illinois; or
16        (3) the item is or was possessed in Illinois, and it
17    was reasonably foreseeable that the item would be
18    possessed in Illinois.
19    "Straw purchaser" means a person who (i) knowingly
20purchases or attempts to purchase a firearm-related product
21with intent to deliver that firearm-related product to another
22person who is prohibited by federal or State law from
23possessing a firearm-related product or (ii) intentionally
24provides false or misleading information on a Bureau of
25Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives firearms transaction
26record form to purchase a firearm-related product with the

 

 

SB3171- 506 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1intent to deliver that firearm-related product to another
2person.
3    "Unlawful paramilitary or private militia" means a group
4of armed individuals, organized privately, in violation of the
5Military Code of Illinois and Section 2 of Article XII of the
6Illinois Constitution.
7    (b) It is an unlawful practice within the meaning of this
8Act for any firearm industry member, through the sale,
9manufacturing, importing, or marketing of a firearm-related
10product, to do any of the following:
11        (1) Knowingly create, maintain, or contribute to a
12    condition in Illinois that endangers the safety or health
13    of the public by conduct either unlawful in itself or
14    unreasonable under all circumstances, including failing to
15    establish or utilize reasonable controls. Reasonable
16    controls include reasonable procedures, safeguards, and
17    business practices that are designed to:
18            (A) prevent the sale or distribution of a
19        firearm-related product to a straw purchaser, a person
20        prohibited by law from possessing a firearm, or a
21        person who the firearm industry member has reasonable
22        cause to believe is at substantial risk of using a
23        firearm-related product to harm themselves or another
24        individual or of possessing or using a firearm-related
25        product unlawfully;
26            (B) prevent the loss or theft of a firearm-related

 

 

SB3171- 507 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        product from the firearm industry member; or
2            (C) comply with all provisions of applicable
3        local, State, and federal law, and do not otherwise
4        promote the unlawful manufacture, sale, possession,
5        marketing, or use of a firearm-related product.
6        (2) Advertise, market, or promote a firearm-related
7    product in a manner that reasonably appears to support,
8    recommend, or encourage individuals to engage in unlawful
9    paramilitary or private militia activity in Illinois, or
10    individuals who are not in the National Guard, United
11    States armed forces reserves, United States armed forces,
12    or any duly authorized military organization to use a
13    firearm-related product for a military-related purpose in
14    Illinois.
15        (3) Except as otherwise provided, advertise, market,
16    promote, design, or sell any firearm-related product in a
17    manner that reasonably appears to support, recommend, or
18    encourage persons under 18 years of age to unlawfully
19    purchase or possess or use a firearm-related product in
20    Illinois.
21            (A) In determining whether the conduct of a
22        firearm industry member, as described in this
23        paragraph, reasonably appears to support, recommend,
24        or encourage persons under 18 years of age to
25        unlawfully purchase a firearm-related product, a court
26        shall consider the totality of the circumstances,

 

 

SB3171- 508 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        including, but not limited to, whether the marketing,
2        advertising promotion, design, or sale:
3                (i) uses caricatures that reasonably appear to
4            be minors or cartoon characters;
5                (ii) offers brand name merchandise for minors,
6            including, but not limited to, clothing, toys,
7            games, or stuffed animals, that promotes a firearm
8            industry member or firearm-related product;
9                (iii) offers firearm-related products in
10            sizes, colors, or designs that are specifically
11            designed to be used by, or appeal to, minors;
12                (iv) is part of a marketing, advertising, or
13            promotion campaign designed with the intent to
14            appeal to minors;
15                (v) uses images or depictions of minors in
16            advertising or marketing, or promotion materials,
17            to depict the use of firearm-related products; or
18                (vi) is placed in a publication created for
19            the purpose of reaching an audience that is
20            predominantly composed of minors and not intended
21            for a more general audience composed of adults.
22            (B) This paragraph does not apply to
23        communications or promotional materials regarding
24        lawful recreational activity with a firearm, such as,
25        but not limited to, practice shooting at targets on
26        established public or private target ranges or

 

 

SB3171- 509 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1        hunting, trapping, or fishing in accordance with the
2        Wildlife Code or the Fish and Aquatic Life Code.
3        (4) Otherwise engage in unfair methods of competition
4    or unfair or deceptive acts or practices declared unlawful
5    under Section 2 of this Act.
6    (c) Paragraphs (2), (3), and (4) of subsection (b) are
7declarative of existing law and shall not be construed as new
8enactments. The provisions of these paragraphs shall apply to
9all actions commenced or pending on or after August 14, 2023
10(the effective date of Public Act 103-559).
11    (d) The provisions of this Section are severable under
12Section 1.31 of the Statute on Statutes.
13(Source: P.A. 103-559, eff. 8-14-23; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24.)
 
14    Section 950. No acceleration or delay. Where this Act
15makes changes in a statute that is represented in this Act by
16text that is not yet or no longer in effect (for example, a
17Section represented by multiple versions), the use of that
18text does not accelerate or delay the taking effect of (i) the
19changes made by this Act or (ii) provisions derived from any
20other Public Act.
 
21    Section 999. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon
22becoming law.

 

 

SB3171- 510 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1 INDEX
2 Statutes amended in order of appearance
3    5 ILCS 120/2from Ch. 102, par. 42
4    5 ILCS 140/7.5
5    5 ILCS 805/15
6    5 ILCS 830/10-5
7    5 ILCS 840/40
8    20 ILCS 805/805-538
9    20 ILCS 2505/2505-306
10    20 ILCS 2605/2605-10was 20 ILCS 2605/55a in part
11    20 ILCS 2605/2605-45was 20 ILCS 2605/55a-5
12    20 ILCS 2605/2605-200was 20 ILCS 2605/55a in part
13    20 ILCS 2605/2605-595
14    20 ILCS 2605/2605-120 rep.
15    20 ILCS 2605/2605-304 rep.
16    20 ILCS 2610/17b
17    20 ILCS 2630/2.2
18    20 ILCS 2910/1from Ch. 127 1/2, par. 501
19    20 ILCS 3930/7.9
20    30 ILCS 105/6z-99
21    30 ILCS 105/6z-127
22    30 ILCS 500/1-10
23    30 ILCS 715/3from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1703
24    50 ILCS 710/1from Ch. 85, par. 515
25    55 ILCS 5/3-6042

 

 

SB3171- 511 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    105 ILCS 5/10-22.6from Ch. 122, par. 10-22.6
2    105 ILCS 5/10-27.1A
3    105 ILCS 5/34-8.05
4    225 ILCS 210/2005from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 1-2005
5    225 ILCS 447/35-30
6    225 ILCS 447/35-35
7    230 ILCS 10/5.4
8    405 ILCS 5/1-106from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1-106
9    405 ILCS 5/1-116from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1-116
10    405 ILCS 5/6-103.1
11    405 ILCS 5/6-103.2
12    405 ILCS 5/6-103.3
13    410 ILCS 45/2from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1302
14    430 ILCS 65/Act rep.
15    430 ILCS 66/25
16    430 ILCS 66/30
17    430 ILCS 66/40
18    430 ILCS 66/66
19    430 ILCS 66/70
20    430 ILCS 66/80
21    430 ILCS 66/105
22    430 ILCS 67/35
23    430 ILCS 67/40
24    430 ILCS 68/5-20
25    430 ILCS 68/5-25
26    430 ILCS 68/5-40

 

 

SB3171- 512 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    430 ILCS 68/5-85
2    520 ILCS 5/3.2from Ch. 61, par. 3.2
3    520 ILCS 5/3.2afrom Ch. 61, par. 3.2a
4    625 ILCS 5/2-116from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 2-116
5    720 ILCS 5/2-7.1
6    720 ILCS 5/2-7.5
7    720 ILCS 5/12-3.05was 720 ILCS 5/12-4
8    720 ILCS 5/16-0.1
9    720 ILCS 5/17-30was 720 ILCS 5/16C-2
10    720 ILCS 5/24-1from Ch. 38, par. 24-1
11    720 ILCS 5/24-1.1from Ch. 38, par. 24-1.1
12    720 ILCS 5/24-1.6
13    720 ILCS 5/24-1.8
14    720 ILCS 5/24-1.9
15    720 ILCS 5/24-1.10
16    720 ILCS 5/24-2
17    720 ILCS 5/24-3from Ch. 38, par. 24-3
18    720 ILCS 5/24-3.1from Ch. 38, par. 24-3.1
19    720 ILCS 5/24-3.2from Ch. 38, par. 24-3.2
20    720 ILCS 5/24-3.4from Ch. 38, par. 24-3.4
21    720 ILCS 5/24-3.5
22    720 ILCS 5/24-3B
23    720 ILCS 5/24-4.1
24    720 ILCS 5/24-4.5 new
25    720 ILCS 5/24-5.1
26    720 ILCS 5/24-9

 

 

SB3171- 513 -LRB104 19105 RLC 32550 b

1    720 ILCS 646/10
2    725 ILCS 5/102-7.1
3    725 ILCS 5/110-10from Ch. 38, par. 110-10
4    725 ILCS 5/112A-5.5
5    725 ILCS 5/112A-11.1
6    725 ILCS 5/112A-11.2
7    725 ILCS 5/112A-14from Ch. 38, par. 112A-14
8    725 ILCS 5/112A-14.7
9    725 ILCS 5/112A-17.5
10    730 ILCS 5/3-2-10.5
11    730 ILCS 5/5-5-3
12    730 ILCS 5/5-5-3.2
13    730 ILCS 5/5-6-3from Ch. 38, par. 1005-6-3
14    730 ILCS 5/3-2-13 rep.
15    740 ILCS 21/80
16    740 ILCS 110/12from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 812
17    750 ILCS 60/210from Ch. 40, par. 2312-10
18    750 ILCS 60/214from Ch. 40, par. 2312-14
19    765 ILCS 1026/15-705
20    815 ILCS 505/2DDDD