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Rep. Barbara Wheeler
Filed: 4/16/2018
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1 | | AMENDMENT TO HOUSE BILL 4855
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2 | | AMENDMENT NO. ______. Amend House Bill 4855 by replacing |
3 | | everything after the enacting clause with the following:
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4 | | "Section 5. The Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is |
5 | | amended by changing Sections 1.1, 5, 7, and 13.2 and by adding |
6 | | Section 8.3 as follows:
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7 | | (430 ILCS 65/1.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-1.1)
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8 | | Sec. 1.1. For purposes of this Act:
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9 | | "Addicted to narcotics" means a person who has been: |
10 | | (1) convicted of an offense involving the use or |
11 | | possession of cannabis, a controlled substance, or |
12 | | methamphetamine within the past year; or |
13 | | (2) determined by the Department of State Police to be |
14 | | addicted to narcotics based upon federal law or federal |
15 | | guidelines. |
16 | | "Addicted to narcotics" does not include possession or use |
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1 | | of a prescribed controlled substance under the direction and |
2 | | authority of a physician or other person authorized to |
3 | | prescribe the controlled substance when the controlled |
4 | | substance is used in the prescribed manner. |
5 | | "Adjudicated as a person with a mental disability" means |
6 | | the person is the subject of a determination by a court, board, |
7 | | commission or other lawful authority that the person, as a |
8 | | result of marked subnormal intelligence, or mental illness, |
9 | | mental impairment, incompetency, condition, or disease: |
10 | | (1) presents a clear and present danger to himself, |
11 | | herself, or to others; |
12 | | (2) lacks the mental capacity to manage his or her own |
13 | | affairs or is adjudicated a person with a disability as |
14 | | defined in Section 11a-2 of the Probate Act of 1975; |
15 | | (3) is not guilty in a criminal case by reason of |
16 | | insanity, mental disease or defect; |
17 | | (3.5) is guilty but mentally ill, as provided in |
18 | | Section 5-2-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections; |
19 | | (4) is incompetent to stand trial in a criminal case; |
20 | | (5) is not guilty by reason of lack of mental |
21 | | responsibility under Articles 50a and 72b of the Uniform |
22 | | Code of Military Justice, 10 U.S.C. 850a, 876b;
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23 | | (6) is a sexually violent person under subsection (f) |
24 | | of Section 5 of the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment |
25 | | Act; |
26 | | (7) is a sexually dangerous person under the Sexually |
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1 | | Dangerous Persons Act; |
2 | | (8) is unfit to stand trial under the Juvenile Court |
3 | | Act of 1987; |
4 | | (9) is not guilty by reason of insanity under the |
5 | | Juvenile Court Act of 1987; |
6 | | (10) is subject to involuntary admission as an |
7 | | inpatient as defined in Section 1-119 of the Mental Health |
8 | | and Developmental Disabilities Code; |
9 | | (11) is subject to involuntary admission as an |
10 | | outpatient as defined in Section 1-119.1 of the Mental |
11 | | Health and Developmental Disabilities Code; |
12 | | (12) is subject to judicial admission as set forth in |
13 | | Section 4-500 of the Mental Health and Developmental |
14 | | Disabilities Code; or |
15 | | (13) is subject to the provisions of the Interstate |
16 | | Agreements on Sexually Dangerous Persons Act. |
17 | | "Clear and present danger" means a person who: |
18 | | (1) communicates a serious threat of physical violence |
19 | | against a reasonably identifiable victim or poses a clear |
20 | | and imminent risk of serious physical injury to himself, |
21 | | herself, or another person as determined by a physician, |
22 | | clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner; or |
23 | | (2) demonstrates threatening physical or verbal |
24 | | behavior, such as violent, suicidal, or assaultive |
25 | | threats, actions, or other behavior, as determined by a |
26 | | physician, clinical psychologist, qualified examiner, |
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1 | | school administrator, or law enforcement official. |
2 | | "Clinical psychologist" has the meaning provided in |
3 | | Section 1-103 of the Mental Health and Developmental |
4 | | Disabilities Code. |
5 | | "Controlled substance" means a controlled substance or |
6 | | controlled substance analog as defined in the Illinois |
7 | | Controlled Substances Act. |
8 | | "Counterfeit" means to copy or imitate, without legal |
9 | | authority, with
intent
to deceive. |
10 | | "Federally licensed firearm dealer" means a person who is |
11 | | licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the |
12 | | federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923).
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13 | | "Firearm" means any device, by
whatever name known, which |
14 | | is designed to expel a projectile or projectiles
by the action |
15 | | of an explosion, expansion of gas or escape of gas; excluding,
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16 | | however:
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17 | | (1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or |
18 | | B-B gun which
expels a single globular projectile not |
19 | | exceeding .18 inch in
diameter or which has a maximum |
20 | | muzzle velocity of less than 700 feet
per second;
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21 | | (1.1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or |
22 | | B-B gun which expels breakable paint balls containing |
23 | | washable marking colors; |
24 | | (2) any device used exclusively for signalling or |
25 | | safety and required or
recommended by the United States |
26 | | Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce
Commission;
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1 | | (3) any device used exclusively for the firing of stud |
2 | | cartridges,
explosive rivets or similar industrial |
3 | | ammunition; and
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4 | | (4) an antique firearm (other than a machine-gun) |
5 | | which, although
designed as a weapon, the Department of |
6 | | State Police finds by reason of
the date of its |
7 | | manufacture, value, design, and other characteristics is
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8 | | primarily a collector's item and is not likely to be used |
9 | | as a weapon.
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10 | | "Firearm ammunition" means any self-contained cartridge or |
11 | | shotgun
shell, by whatever name known, which is designed to be |
12 | | used or adaptable to
use in a firearm; excluding, however:
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13 | | (1) any ammunition exclusively designed for use with a |
14 | | device used
exclusively for signalling or safety and |
15 | | required or recommended by the
United States Coast Guard or |
16 | | the Interstate Commerce Commission; and
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17 | | (2) any ammunition designed exclusively for use with a |
18 | | stud or rivet
driver or other similar industrial |
19 | | ammunition. |
20 | | "Gun show" means an event or function: |
21 | | (1) at which the sale and transfer of firearms is the |
22 | | regular and normal course of business and where 50 or more |
23 | | firearms are displayed, offered, or exhibited for sale, |
24 | | transfer, or exchange; or |
25 | | (2) at which not less than 10 gun show vendors display, |
26 | | offer, or exhibit for sale, sell, transfer, or exchange |
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1 | | firearms.
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2 | | "Gun show" includes the entire premises provided for an |
3 | | event or function, including parking areas for the event or |
4 | | function, that is sponsored to facilitate the purchase, sale, |
5 | | transfer, or exchange of firearms as described in this Section.
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6 | | Nothing in this definition shall be construed to exclude a gun |
7 | | show held in conjunction with competitive shooting events at |
8 | | the World Shooting Complex sanctioned by a national governing |
9 | | body in which the sale or transfer of firearms is authorized |
10 | | under subparagraph (5) of paragraph (g) of subsection (A) of |
11 | | Section 24-3 of the Criminal Code of 2012. |
12 | | Unless otherwise expressly stated, "gun show" does not |
13 | | include training or safety classes, competitive shooting |
14 | | events, such as rifle, shotgun, or handgun matches, trap, |
15 | | skeet, or sporting clays shoots, dinners, banquets, raffles, or
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16 | | any other event where the sale or transfer of firearms is not |
17 | | the primary course of business. |
18 | | "Gun show promoter" means a person who organizes or |
19 | | operates a gun show. |
20 | | "Gun show vendor" means a person who exhibits, sells, |
21 | | offers for sale, transfers, or exchanges any firearms at a gun |
22 | | show, regardless of whether the person arranges with a gun show |
23 | | promoter for a fixed location from which to exhibit, sell, |
24 | | offer for sale, transfer, or exchange any firearm. |
25 | | "Involuntarily admitted" has the meaning as prescribed in |
26 | | Sections 1-119 and 1-119.1 of the Mental Health and |
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1 | | Developmental Disabilities Code. |
2 | | "Mental health facility" means any licensed private |
3 | | hospital or hospital affiliate, institution, or facility, or |
4 | | part thereof, and any facility, or part thereof, operated by |
5 | | the State or a political subdivision thereof which provide |
6 | | treatment of persons with mental illness and includes all |
7 | | hospitals, institutions, clinics, evaluation facilities, |
8 | | mental health centers, colleges, universities, long-term care |
9 | | facilities, and nursing homes, or parts thereof, which provide |
10 | | treatment of persons with mental illness whether or not the |
11 | | primary purpose is to provide treatment of persons with mental |
12 | | illness. |
13 | | "National governing body" means a group of persons who |
14 | | adopt rules and formulate policy on behalf of a national |
15 | | firearm sporting organization. |
16 | | "Patient" means: |
17 | | (1) a person who is admitted as an inpatient or |
18 | | resident of a public or private mental health facility for |
19 | | mental health treatment under Chapter III of the Mental |
20 | | Health and Developmental Disabilities Code as an informal |
21 | | admission, a voluntary admission, a minor admission, an |
22 | | emergency admission, or an involuntary admission, |
23 | | voluntarily receives mental health treatment as an |
24 | | in-patient or resident of any public or private mental |
25 | | health facility, unless the treatment was solely for an |
26 | | alcohol abuse disorder and no other secondary substance |
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1 | | abuse disorder or mental illness ; or |
2 | | (2) a person who voluntarily or involuntarily receives |
3 | | mental health treatment as an out-patient or is otherwise |
4 | | provided services by a public or private mental health |
5 | | facility, and who poses a clear and present danger to |
6 | | himself, herself, or to others. |
7 | | "Person with a developmental disability" means a person |
8 | | with a disability which is attributable to any other condition |
9 | | which results in impairment similar to that caused by an |
10 | | intellectual disability and which requires services similar to |
11 | | those required by persons with intellectual disabilities. The |
12 | | disability must originate before the age of 18
years, be |
13 | | expected to continue indefinitely, and constitute a |
14 | | substantial disability. This disability results, in the |
15 | | professional opinion of a physician, clinical psychologist, or |
16 | | qualified examiner, in significant functional limitations in 3 |
17 | | or more of the following areas of major life activity: |
18 | | (i) self-care; |
19 | | (ii) receptive and expressive language; |
20 | | (iii) learning; |
21 | | (iv) mobility; or |
22 | | (v) self-direction. |
23 | | "Person with an intellectual disability" means a person |
24 | | with a significantly subaverage general intellectual |
25 | | functioning which exists concurrently with impairment in |
26 | | adaptive behavior and which originates before the age of 18 |
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1 | | years. |
2 | | "Physician" has the meaning as defined in Section 1-120 of |
3 | | the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. |
4 | | "Qualified examiner" has the meaning provided in Section |
5 | | 1-122 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. |
6 | | "Sanctioned competitive shooting event" means a shooting |
7 | | contest officially recognized by a national or state shooting |
8 | | sport association, and includes any sight-in or practice |
9 | | conducted in conjunction with the event.
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10 | | "School administrator" means the person required to report |
11 | | under the School Administrator Reporting of Mental Health Clear |
12 | | and Present Danger Determinations Law. |
13 | | "Stun gun or taser" has the meaning ascribed to it in |
14 | | Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012. |
15 | | (Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 99-29, eff. 7-10-15; 99-143, |
16 | | eff. 7-27-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)
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17 | | (430 ILCS 65/5) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-5)
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18 | | Sec. 5. Application and renewal. |
19 | | (a) The Department of State Police shall either approve or
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20 | | deny all applications within 30 days from the date they are |
21 | | received,
except as provided in subsection (b) of this Section, |
22 | | and every applicant found qualified under Section 8 of this Act |
23 | | by
the Department shall be entitled to a Firearm Owner's |
24 | | Identification
Card upon the payment of a $10 fee. Any |
25 | | applicant who is an active duty member of the Armed Forces of |
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1 | | the United States, a member of the Illinois National Guard, or |
2 | | a member of the Reserve Forces of the United States is exempt |
3 | | from the application fee. $6 of each fee derived from the
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4 | | issuance of Firearm Owner's Identification Cards, or renewals |
5 | | thereof,
shall be deposited in the Wildlife and Fish Fund in |
6 | | the State Treasury;
$1 of the fee shall be deposited in the |
7 | | State Police Services Fund and $3 of the fee shall be deposited |
8 | | in the
State Police Firearm Services Fund. |
9 | | (b) Renewal applications shall be approved or denied within |
10 | | 60 business days, provided the applicant submitted his or her |
11 | | renewal application prior to the expiration of his or her |
12 | | Firearm Owner's Identification Card. If a renewal application |
13 | | has been submitted prior to the expiration date of the |
14 | | applicant's Firearm Owner's Identification Card, the Firearm |
15 | | Owner's Identification Card shall remain valid while the |
16 | | Department processes the application, unless the person is |
17 | | subject to or becomes subject to revocation under this Act. The |
18 | | cost for a renewal application shall be $10 which shall be |
19 | | deposited into the State Police Firearm Services Fund.
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20 | | (Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)
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21 | | (430 ILCS 65/7) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-7)
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22 | | Sec. 7. Validity of Firearm Owner's Identification Card. |
23 | | (a) Except as provided in Section 8 of this Act or |
24 | | subsection (b) of this Section , a Firearm Owner's
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25 | | Identification Card issued under the provisions of this Act |
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1 | | shall be valid
for the person to whom it is issued for a period |
2 | | of 10 years from the date
of issuance. |
3 | | (b) If a renewal application is submitted to the Department |
4 | | before the expiration date of the applicant's current Firearm |
5 | | Owner's Identification Card, the Firearm Owner's |
6 | | Identification Card shall remain valid for a period of 60 |
7 | | business days, unless the person is subject to or becomes |
8 | | subject to revocation under this Act.
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9 | | (Source: P.A. 95-581, eff. 6-1-08 .)
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10 | | (430 ILCS 65/8.3 new) |
11 | | Sec. 8.3. Suspension of Firearm Owner's Identification |
12 | | Card. The Department of State Police may, by rule in a manner |
13 | | consistent with the Department's rules concerning revocation, |
14 | | provide for the suspension of the Firearm Owner's |
15 | | Identification Card of a person whose Firearm Owner's |
16 | | Identification Card is subject to revocation and seizure under |
17 | | this Act for the duration of the disqualification if the |
18 | | disqualification is not a permanent grounds for revocation of a |
19 | | Firearm Owner's Identification Card under this Act.
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20 | | (430 ILCS 65/13.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-13.2)
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21 | | Sec. 13.2. Renewal; name or address change; replacement |
22 | | card. The Department of State Police shall, 60 days
prior to |
23 | | the expiration of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card,
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24 | | forward by first class mail to each person whose card is to |
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1 | | expire a
notification of the
expiration of the card and |
2 | | instructions for renewal an application which may be used to
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3 | | apply for renewal of the card .
It is the obligation of the |
4 | | holder of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card
to notify the |
5 | | Department of State Police of any address change since the
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6 | | issuance of
the Firearm Owner's Identification Card. Whenever |
7 | | any person moves from the residence address named on his or her |
8 | | card, the person shall within 21 calendar days thereafter |
9 | | notify in a form and manner prescribed by the Department of his |
10 | | or her old and new residence addresses and the card number held |
11 | | by him or her. Any person whose legal name has changed from the |
12 | | name on the card that he or she has been previously issued must |
13 | | apply for a corrected card within 30 calendar days after the |
14 | | change. The cost for a corrected card shall be $5 . The cost for |
15 | | replacement of a card which has been lost, destroyed, or stolen |
16 | | shall be $5 if the loss, destruction, or theft of the card is |
17 | | reported to the Department of State Police. The fees collected |
18 | | under this Section which shall be deposited into the State |
19 | | Police Firearm Services Fund.
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20 | | (Source: P.A. 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)".
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