99TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY
State of Illinois
2015 and 2016
HB6588

Introduced , by Rep. Gregory Harris

SYNOPSIS AS INTRODUCED:
See Index

Amends the Illinois Police Training Act. Provides the annual training of police chiefs must include at least one course on the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, and firearms investigations. Amends the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. In the definition of "clear and present danger" that the person demonstrates threatening physical or verbal behavior, such as violent, suicidal, or assaultive threats, actions, or other behavior, adds that it includes any act that is intended to cause or create a risk and does cause or create a risk of death or great bodily harm to one or more persons. Permits the Department of State Police to notify the FBI if a person on the Terrorist Watchlist submits an application for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card (FOID card). Requires the Department of State Police to, within 3 business days, provide notice and reason for the disqualification of a person from a firearm purchase or FOID card revocation to all law enforcement agencies with jurisdiction to assist with the seizure of the person's FOID card. Adds as grounds to deny an application for or to revoke or seize the person's FOID card that the person is charged with making a terrorist threat or soliciting or providing material support for terrorism under State law or a similar offense of another state or under federal law. Provides if the Department of State Police has not received the FOID card or Firearms Disposition Record from the person, the Department shall send notice of noncompliance to the sheriff and law enforcement agency where the person resides.
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FISCAL NOTE ACT MAY APPLY

A BILL FOR

HB6588LRB099 22270 RLC 49645 b
1 AN ACT concerning safety.
2 Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois,
3represented in the General Assembly:
4 Section 5. The Illinois Police Training Act is amended by
5changing Section 10.7 as follows:
6 (50 ILCS 705/10.7)
7 Sec. 10.7. Mandatory training; police chief and deputy
8police chief. Each police chief and deputy police chief shall
9obtain at least 20 hours of training each year. The training
10must be approved by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training and
11Standards Board and must be related to law enforcement,
12management or executive development, or ethics, and must
13include at least one course on the Firearm Owners
14Identification Card Act, the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, and
15firearms investigations. This requirement may be satisfied by
16attending any training portion of a conference held by an
17association that represents chiefs of police that has been
18approved by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training and Standards
19Board. Any police chief and any deputy police chief, upon
20presentation of a certificate of completion from the person or
21entity conducting the training, shall be reimbursed by the
22municipality in accordance with the municipal policy
23regulating the terms of reimbursement, for his or her

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1reasonable expenses in obtaining the training required under
2this Section. No police chief or deputy police chief may attend
3any recognized training offering without the prior approval of
4his or her municipal mayor, manager, or immediate supervisor.
5 This Section does not apply to the City of Chicago or the
6Sheriff's Police Department in Cook County.
7(Source: P.A. 94-354, eff. 1-1-06.)
8 Section 10. The Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is
9amended by changing Sections 1.1, 3.1, 3.3, 8, and 9.5 as
10follows:
11 (430 ILCS 65/1.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-1.1)
12 Sec. 1.1. For purposes of this Act:
13 "Addicted to narcotics" means a person who has been:
14 (1) convicted of an offense involving the use or
15 possession of cannabis, a controlled substance, or
16 methamphetamine within the past year; or
17 (2) determined by the Department of State Police to be
18 addicted to narcotics based upon federal law or federal
19 guidelines.
20 "Addicted to narcotics" does not include possession or use
21of a prescribed controlled substance under the direction and
22authority of a physician or other person authorized to
23prescribe the controlled substance when the controlled
24substance is used in the prescribed manner.

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1 "Adjudicated as a person with a mental disability" means
2the person is the subject of a determination by a court, board,
3commission or other lawful authority that the person, as a
4result of marked subnormal intelligence, or mental illness,
5mental impairment, incompetency, condition, or disease:
6 (1) presents a clear and present danger to himself,
7 herself, or to others;
8 (2) lacks the mental capacity to manage his or her own
9 affairs or is adjudicated a person with a disability as
10 defined in Section 11a-2 of the Probate Act of 1975;
11 (3) is not guilty in a criminal case by reason of
12 insanity, mental disease or defect;
13 (3.5) is guilty but mentally ill, as provided in
14 Section 5-2-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections;
15 (4) is incompetent to stand trial in a criminal case;
16 (5) is not guilty by reason of lack of mental
17 responsibility under Articles 50a and 72b of the Uniform
18 Code of Military Justice, 10 U.S.C. 850a, 876b;
19 (6) is a sexually violent person under subsection (f)
20 of Section 5 of the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment
21 Act;
22 (7) is a sexually dangerous person under the Sexually
23 Dangerous Persons Act;
24 (8) is unfit to stand trial under the Juvenile Court
25 Act of 1987;
26 (9) is not guilty by reason of insanity under the

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1 Juvenile Court Act of 1987;
2 (10) is subject to involuntary admission as an
3 inpatient as defined in Section 1-119 of the Mental Health
4 and Developmental Disabilities Code;
5 (11) is subject to involuntary admission as an
6 outpatient as defined in Section 1-119.1 of the Mental
7 Health and Developmental Disabilities Code;
8 (12) is subject to judicial admission as set forth in
9 Section 4-500 of the Mental Health and Developmental
10 Disabilities Code; or
11 (13) is subject to the provisions of the Interstate
12 Agreements on Sexually Dangerous Persons Act.
13 "Clear and present danger" means a person who:
14 (1) communicates a serious threat of physical violence
15 against a reasonably identifiable victim or poses a clear
16 and imminent risk of serious physical injury to himself,
17 herself, or another person as determined by a physician,
18 clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner; or
19 (2) demonstrates threatening physical or verbal
20 behavior, such as violent, suicidal, or assaultive
21 threats, actions, or other behavior, as determined by a
22 physician, clinical psychologist, qualified examiner,
23 school administrator, or law enforcement official,
24 including any act that is intended to cause or create a
25 risk and does cause or create a risk of death or great
26 bodily harm to one or more persons.

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1 "Clinical psychologist" has the meaning provided in
2Section 1-103 of the Mental Health and Developmental
3Disabilities Code.
4 "Controlled substance" means a controlled substance or
5controlled substance analog as defined in the Illinois
6Controlled Substances Act.
7 "Counterfeit" means to copy or imitate, without legal
8authority, with intent to deceive.
9 disability
10 This disability results in the professional opinion of a
11physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner, in
12significant functional limitations in 3 or more of the
13following areas of major life activity:
14 (i) self-care;
15 (ii) receptive and expressive language;
16 (iii) learning;
17 (iv) mobility; or
18 (v) self-direction.
19 "Federally licensed firearm dealer" means a person who is
20licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the
21federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923).
22 "Firearm" means any device, by whatever name known, which
23is designed to expel a projectile or projectiles by the action
24of an explosion, expansion of gas or escape of gas; excluding,
25however:
26 (1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or

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1 B-B gun which expels a single globular projectile not
2 exceeding .18 inch in diameter or which has a maximum
3 muzzle velocity of less than 700 feet per second;
4 (1.1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or
5 B-B gun which expels breakable paint balls containing
6 washable marking colors;
7 (2) any device used exclusively for signalling or
8 safety and required or recommended by the United States
9 Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce Commission;
10 (3) any device used exclusively for the firing of stud
11 cartridges, explosive rivets or similar industrial
12 ammunition; and
13 (4) an antique firearm (other than a machine-gun)
14 which, although designed as a weapon, the Department of
15 State Police finds by reason of the date of its
16 manufacture, value, design, and other characteristics is
17 primarily a collector's item and is not likely to be used
18 as a weapon.
19 "Firearm ammunition" means any self-contained cartridge or
20shotgun shell, by whatever name known, which is designed to be
21used or adaptable to use in a firearm; excluding, however:
22 (1) any ammunition exclusively designed for use with a
23 device used exclusively for signalling or safety and
24 required or recommended by the United States Coast Guard or
25 the Interstate Commerce Commission; and
26 (2) any ammunition designed exclusively for use with a

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1 stud or rivet driver or other similar industrial
2 ammunition.
3 "Gun show" means an event or function:
4 (1) at which the sale and transfer of firearms is the
5 regular and normal course of business and where 50 or more
6 firearms are displayed, offered, or exhibited for sale,
7 transfer, or exchange; or
8 (2) at which not less than 10 gun show vendors display,
9 offer, or exhibit for sale, sell, transfer, or exchange
10 firearms.
11 "Gun show" includes the entire premises provided for an
12event or function, including parking areas for the event or
13function, that is sponsored to facilitate the purchase, sale,
14transfer, or exchange of firearms as described in this Section.
15Nothing in this definition shall be construed to exclude a gun
16show held in conjunction with competitive shooting events at
17the World Shooting Complex sanctioned by a national governing
18body in which the sale or transfer of firearms is authorized
19under subparagraph (5) of paragraph (g) of subsection (A) of
20Section 24-3 of the Criminal Code of 2012.
21 Unless otherwise expressly stated, "gun show" does not
22include training or safety classes, competitive shooting
23events, such as rifle, shotgun, or handgun matches, trap,
24skeet, or sporting clays shoots, dinners, banquets, raffles, or
25any other event where the sale or transfer of firearms is not
26the primary course of business.

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1 "Gun show promoter" means a person who organizes or
2operates a gun show.
3 "Gun show vendor" means a person who exhibits, sells,
4offers for sale, transfers, or exchanges any firearms at a gun
5show, regardless of whether the person arranges with a gun show
6promoter for a fixed location from which to exhibit, sell,
7offer for sale, transfer, or exchange any firearm.
8 "Involuntarily admitted" has the meaning as prescribed in
9Sections 1-119 and 1-119.1 of the Mental Health and
10Developmental Disabilities Code.
11 "Mental health facility" means any licensed private
12hospital or hospital affiliate, institution, or facility, or
13part thereof, and any facility, or part thereof, operated by
14the State or a political subdivision thereof which provide
15treatment of persons with mental illness and includes all
16hospitals, institutions, clinics, evaluation facilities,
17mental health centers, colleges, universities, long-term care
18facilities, and nursing homes, or parts thereof, which provide
19treatment of persons with mental illness whether or not the
20primary purpose is to provide treatment of persons with mental
21illness.
22 "National governing body" means a group of persons who
23adopt rules and formulate policy on behalf of a national
24firearm sporting organization.
25 "Patient" means:
26 (1) a person who voluntarily receives mental health

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1 treatment as an in-patient or resident of any public or
2 private mental health facility, unless the treatment was
3 solely for an alcohol abuse disorder and no other secondary
4 substance abuse disorder or mental illness; or
5 (2) a person who voluntarily receives mental health
6 treatment as an out-patient or is provided services by a
7 public or private mental health facility, and who poses a
8 clear and present danger to himself, herself, or to others.
9 "Person with a developmental disability" means a person
10with a disability which is attributable to any other condition
11which results in impairment similar to that caused by an
12intellectual disability and which requires services similar to
13those required by persons with intellectual disabilities. The
14disability must originate before the age of 18 years, be
15expected to continue indefinitely, and constitute a
16substantial disability. This disability results, in the
17professional opinion of a physician, clinical psychologist, or
18qualified examiner, in significant functional limitations in 3
19or more of the following areas of major life activity:
20 (i) self-care;
21 (ii) receptive and expressive language;
22 (iii) learning;
23 (iv) mobility; or
24 (v) self-direction.
25 "Person with an intellectual disability" means a person
26with a significantly subaverage general intellectual

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1functioning which exists concurrently with impairment in
2adaptive behavior and which originates before the age of 18
3years.
4 "Physician" has the meaning as defined in Section 1-120 of
5the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.
6 "Qualified examiner" has the meaning provided in Section
71-122 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.
8 "Sanctioned competitive shooting event" means a shooting
9contest officially recognized by a national or state shooting
10sport association, and includes any sight-in or practice
11conducted in conjunction with the event.
12 "School administrator" means the person required to report
13under the School Administrator Reporting of Mental Health Clear
14and Present Danger Determinations Law.
15 "Stun gun or taser" has the meaning ascribed to it in
16Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.
17(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 99-29, eff. 7-10-15; 99-143,
18eff. 7-27-15; revised 10-20-15.)
19 (430 ILCS 65/3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-3.1)
20 Sec. 3.1. Firearm transfer inquiry program Dial up system.
21 (a) The Department of State Police shall provide a firearm
22transfer inquiry program consisting of a dial up telephone
23system or utilize other existing technology which shall be used
24by any federally licensed firearm dealer, gun show promoter, or
25gun show vendor who is to transfer a firearm, stun gun, or

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1taser under the provisions of this Act. The Department of State
2Police may utilize existing technology which allows the caller
3to be charged a fee not to exceed $2. Fees collected by the
4Department of State Police shall be deposited in the State
5Police Services Fund and used to provide the service.
6 (b) Upon receiving a request from a federally licensed
7firearm dealer, gun show promoter, or gun show vendor, the
8Department of State Police shall immediately approve, or within
9the time period established by Section 24-3 of the Criminal
10Code of 2012 regarding the delivery of firearms, stun guns, and
11tasers notify the inquiring dealer, gun show promoter, or gun
12show vendor of any objection that would disqualify the
13transferee from acquiring or possessing a firearm, stun gun, or
14taser. In conducting the inquiry, the Department of State
15Police shall initiate and complete an automated search of its
16criminal history record information files and those of the
17Federal Bureau of Investigation, including the National
18Instant Criminal Background Check System, and of the files of
19the Department of Human Services relating to mental health and
20developmental disabilities to obtain any felony conviction or
21patient hospitalization information which would disqualify a
22person from obtaining or require revocation of a currently
23valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.
24 (c) If receipt of a firearm would not violate Section 24-3
25of the Criminal Code of 2012, federal law, or this Act the
26Department of State Police shall:

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1 (1) assign a unique identification number to the
2 transfer; and
3 (2) provide the licensee, gun show promoter, or gun
4 show vendor with the number.
5 (d) Approvals issued by the Department of State Police for
6the purchase of a firearm are valid for 30 days from the date
7of issue.
8 (e) (1) The Department of State Police must act as the
9Illinois Point of Contact for the National Instant Criminal
10Background Check System.
11 (2) The Department of State Police and the Department of
12Human Services shall, in accordance with State and federal law
13regarding confidentiality, enter into a memorandum of
14understanding with the Federal Bureau of Investigation for the
15purpose of implementing the National Instant Criminal
16Background Check System in the State. The Department of State
17Police shall report the name, date of birth, and physical
18description of any person prohibited from possessing a firearm
19pursuant to the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or 18
20U.S.C. 922(g) and (n) to the National Instant Criminal
21Background Check System Index, Denied Persons Files.
22 (3) The Department of State Police shall, within 3 business
23days, provide notice of the disqualification of a person under
24subsection (b) of this Section or the revocation of a person's
25Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 8 of this
26Act, and the reason for the disqualification or revocation, to

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1all law enforcement agencies with jurisdiction to assist with
2the seizure of the person's Firearm Owner's Identification
3Card.
4 (f) The Department of State Police shall adopt rules not
5inconsistent with this Section to implement this system.
6(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)
7 (430 ILCS 65/3.3)
8 Sec. 3.3. Report to the local law enforcement agency;
9notification to the Federal Bureau of Investigation.
10 (a) The Department of State Police must report the name and
11address of a person to the local law enforcement agency where
12the person resides if the person attempting to purchase a
13firearm is disqualified from purchasing a firearm because of
14information obtained under subsection (a-10) of Section 3 or
15Section 3.1 that would disqualify the person from obtaining a
16Firearm Owner's Identification Card under any of subsections
17(c) through (n) of Section 8 of this Act.
18 (b) The Department of State Police may notify the Federal
19Bureau of Investigation when a person named on the consolidated
20Terrorist Watchlist maintained by the Terrorist Screening
21Center administrated by the Federal Bureau of Investigation is
22making application for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card.
23(Source: P.A. 98-508, eff. 8-19-13.)
24 (430 ILCS 65/8) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-8)

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1 Sec. 8. Grounds for denial and revocation. The Department
2of State Police has authority to deny an application for or to
3revoke and seize a Firearm Owner's Identification Card
4previously issued under this Act only if the Department finds
5that the applicant or the person to whom such card was issued
6is or was at the time of issuance:
7 (a) A person under 21 years of age who has been
8 convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or
9 adjudged delinquent;
10 (b) A person under 21 years of age who does not have
11 the written consent of his parent or guardian to acquire
12 and possess firearms and firearm ammunition, or whose
13 parent or guardian has revoked such written consent, or
14 where such parent or guardian does not qualify to have a
15 Firearm Owner's Identification Card;
16 (c) A person convicted of a felony under the laws of
17 this or any other jurisdiction;
18 (d) A person addicted to narcotics;
19 (e) A person who has been a patient of a mental health
20 facility within the past 5 years or a person who has been a
21 patient in a mental health facility more than 5 years ago
22 who has not received the certification required under
23 subsection (u) of this Section. An active law enforcement
24 officer employed by a unit of government who is denied,
25 revoked, or has his or her Firearm Owner's Identification
26 Card seized under this subsection (e) may obtain relief as

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1 described in subsection (c-5) of Section 10 of this Act if
2 the officer did not act in a manner threatening to the
3 officer, another person, or the public as determined by the
4 treating clinical psychologist or physician, and the
5 officer seeks mental health treatment;
6 (f) A person whose mental condition is of such a nature
7 that it poses a clear and present danger to the applicant,
8 any other person or persons or the community;
9 (g) A person who has an intellectual disability;
10 (h) A person who intentionally makes a false statement
11 in the Firearm Owner's Identification Card application;
12 (i) An alien who is unlawfully present in the United
13 States under the laws of the United States;
14 (i-5) An alien who has been admitted to the United
15 States under a non-immigrant visa (as that term is defined
16 in Section 101(a)(26) of the Immigration and Nationality
17 Act (8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(26))), except that this subsection
18 (i-5) does not apply to any alien who has been lawfully
19 admitted to the United States under a non-immigrant visa if
20 that alien is:
21 (1) admitted to the United States for lawful
22 hunting or sporting purposes;
23 (2) an official representative of a foreign
24 government who is:
25 (A) accredited to the United States Government
26 or the Government's mission to an international

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1 organization having its headquarters in the United
2 States; or
3 (B) en route to or from another country to
4 which that alien is accredited;
5 (3) an official of a foreign government or
6 distinguished foreign visitor who has been so
7 designated by the Department of State;
8 (4) a foreign law enforcement officer of a friendly
9 foreign government entering the United States on
10 official business; or
11 (5) one who has received a waiver from the Attorney
12 General of the United States pursuant to 18 U.S.C.
13 922(y)(3);
14 (j) (Blank);
15 (k) A person who has been convicted within the past 5
16 years of battery, assault, aggravated assault, violation
17 of an order of protection, or a substantially similar
18 offense in another jurisdiction, in which a firearm was
19 used or possessed;
20 (l) A person who has been convicted of domestic
21 battery, aggravated domestic battery, or a substantially
22 similar offense in another jurisdiction committed before,
23 on or after January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public
24 Act 97-158). If the applicant or person who has been
25 previously issued a Firearm Owner's Identification Card
26 under this Act knowingly and intelligently waives the right

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1 to have an offense described in this paragraph (l) tried by
2 a jury, and by guilty plea or otherwise, results in a
3 conviction for an offense in which a domestic relationship
4 is not a required element of the offense but in which a
5 determination of the applicability of 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(9)
6 is made under Section 112A-11.1 of the Code of Criminal
7 Procedure of 1963, an entry by the court of a judgment of
8 conviction for that offense shall be grounds for denying an
9 application for and for revoking and seizing a Firearm
10 Owner's Identification Card previously issued to the
11 person under this Act;
12 (m) (Blank);
13 (n) A person who is prohibited from acquiring or
14 possessing firearms or firearm ammunition by any Illinois
15 State statute or by federal law;
16 (o) A minor subject to a petition filed under Section
17 5-520 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 alleging that the
18 minor is a delinquent minor for the commission of an
19 offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony;
20 (p) An adult who had been adjudicated a delinquent
21 minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for the
22 commission of an offense that if committed by an adult
23 would be a felony;
24 (q) A person who is not a resident of the State of
25 Illinois, except as provided in subsection (a-10) of
26 Section 4;

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1 (r) A person who has been adjudicated as a person with
2 a mental disability;
3 (s) A person who has been found to have a developmental
4 disability;
5 (t) A person involuntarily admitted into a mental
6 health facility; or
7 (u) A person who has had his or her Firearm Owner's
8 Identification Card revoked or denied under subsection (e)
9 of this Section or item (iv) of paragraph (2) of subsection
10 (a) of Section 4 of this Act because he or she was a
11 patient in a mental health facility as provided in
12 subsection (e) of this Section, shall not be permitted to
13 obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, after the
14 5-year period has lapsed, unless he or she has received a
15 mental health evaluation by a physician, clinical
16 psychologist, or qualified examiner as those terms are
17 defined in the Mental Health and Developmental
18 Disabilities Code, and has received a certification that he
19 or she is not a clear and present danger to himself,
20 herself, or others. The physician, clinical psychologist,
21 or qualified examiner making the certification and his or
22 her employer shall not be held criminally, civilly, or
23 professionally liable for making or not making the
24 certification required under this subsection, except for
25 willful or wanton misconduct. This subsection does not
26 apply to a person whose firearm possession rights have been

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1 restored through administrative or judicial action under
2 Section 10 or 11 of this Act; or
3 (v) A person who is charged with making a terrorist
4 threat as set forth in Section 29D-20 or soliciting or
5 providing material support for terrorism as set forth in
6 Section 29D-29.9 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or a similar
7 offense of another state or under federal law.
8 Upon revocation of a person's Firearm Owner's
9Identification Card, the Department of State Police shall
10provide notice to the person and the person shall comply with
11Section 9.5 of this Act.
12(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-508, eff. 8-19-13; 98-756,
13eff. 7-16-14; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15.)
14 (430 ILCS 65/9.5)
15 Sec. 9.5. Revocation of Firearm Owner's Identification
16Card.
17 (a) A person who receives a revocation notice under Section
189 of this Act shall, within 48 hours of receiving notice of the
19revocation:
20 (1) surrender his or her Firearm Owner's
21 Identification Card to the local law enforcement agency
22 where the person resides. The local law enforcement agency
23 shall provide the person a receipt and transmit the Firearm
24 Owner's Identification Card to the Department of State
25 Police; and

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1 (2) complete a Firearm Disposition Record on a form
2 prescribed by the Department of State Police and place his
3 or her firearms in the location or with the person reported
4 in the Firearm Disposition Record. The form shall require
5 the person to disclose:
6 (A) the make, model, and serial number of each
7 firearm owned by or under the custody and control of
8 the revoked person;
9 (B) the location where each firearm will be
10 maintained during the prohibited term; and
11 (C) if any firearm will be transferred to the
12 custody of another person, the name, address and
13 Firearm Owner's Identification Card number of the
14 transferee.
15 (b) The local law enforcement agency shall provide a copy
16of the Firearm Disposition Record to the person whose Firearm
17Owner's Identification Card has been revoked and to the
18Department of State Police.
19 (c) If the person whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card
20has been revoked fails to comply with the requirements of this
21Section, the sheriff or law enforcement agency where the person
22resides may petition the circuit court to issue a warrant to
23search for and seize the Firearm Owner's Identification Card
24and firearms in the possession or under the custody or control
25of the person whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card has
26been revoked.

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1 (c-5) If the Department of State Police has not received
2the Firearm Owner's Identification Card or Firearms
3Disposition Record from the person, the Department shall send
4notice of noncompliance to the sheriff and law enforcement
5agency where the person resides and upon request the Department
6shall make this information of noncompliance available to the
7sheriff and law enforcement agency where the person resides.
8 (d) A violation of subsection (a) of this Section is a
9Class A misdemeanor.
10 (e) The observation of a Firearm Owner's Identification
11Card in the possession of a person whose Firearm Owner's
12Identification Card has been revoked constitutes a sufficient
13basis for the arrest of that person for violation of this
14Section.
15 (f) Within 30 days after the effective date of this
16amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, the Department of
17State Police shall provide written notice of the requirements
18of this Section to persons whose Firearm Owner's Identification
19Cards have been revoked, suspended, or expired and who have
20failed to surrender their cards to the Department. Within 30
21days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the
2299th General Assembly, and by January 31 of each year
23thereafter, the Department of State Police shall provide
24written notice, in the form and manner prescribed by the
25Department, of the requirements of this Section to every
26sheriff and law enforcement agency within this State.

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1 (g) A person whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card has
2been revoked and who received notice under subsection (f) shall
3comply with the requirements of this Section within 48 hours of
4receiving notice.
5(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)

HB6588- 23 -LRB099 22270 RLC 49645 b
1 INDEX
2 Statutes amended in order of appearance