Public Act 099-0029
SB0836 EnrolledLRB099 09057 RLC 29246 b
AN ACT concerning safety.
Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois,
represented in the General Assembly:
Section 5. The Mental Health and Developmental
Disabilities Code is amended by changing Sections 6-103.2 and
6-103.3 as follows:
(405 ILCS 5/6-103.2)
Sec. 6-103.2. Developmental disability; notice. If For
purposes of this Section, if a person 14 years old or older is
determined to be developmentally disabled as defined in Section
1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act by a
physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner,
whether practicing at a public or by a private mental health
facility or developmental disability facility, the physician,
clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner shall notify the
Department of Human Services within 7 days 24 hours of making
the determination that the person has a developmental
disability. The Department of Human Services shall immediately
update its records and information relating to mental health
and developmental disabilities, and if appropriate, shall
notify the Department of State Police in a form and manner
prescribed by the Department of State Police. Information
disclosed under this Section shall remain privileged and
confidential, and shall not be redisclosed, except as required
under subsection (e) of Section 3.1 of the Firearm Owners
Identification Card Act, nor used for any other purpose. The
method of providing this information shall guarantee that the
information is not released beyond that which is necessary for
the purpose of this Section and shall be provided by rule by
the Department of Human Services. The identity of the person
reporting under this Section shall not be disclosed to the
subject of the report.
The physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified
examiner making the determination and his or her employer may
not be held criminally, civilly, or professionally liable for
making or not making the notification required under this
Section, except for willful or wanton misconduct.
For purposes of this Section, "developmentally disabled"
means a disability which is attributable to any other condition
which results in impairment similar to that caused by an
intellectual disability and which requires services similar to
those required by intellectually disabled persons. The
disability must originate before the age of 18 years, be
expected to continue indefinitely, and constitute a
substantial disability. This disability results in the
professional opinion of a physician, clinical psychologist, or
qualified examiner, in significant functional limitations in 3
or more of the following areas of major life activity:
(i) self-care;
(ii) receptive and expressive language;
(iii) learning;
(iv) mobility; or
(v) self-direction.
"Determined to be developmentally disabled by a physician,
clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner" means in the
professional opinion of the physician, clinical psychologist,
or qualified examiner, a person is diagnosed, assessed, or
evaluated to be developmentally disabled.
(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)
(405 ILCS 5/6-103.3)
Sec. 6-103.3. Clear and present danger; notice. If a person
is determined to pose a clear and present danger to himself,
herself, or to others by a physician, clinical psychologist, or
qualified examiner, whether employed by the State, by any
public or private mental health facility or part thereof, or by
a law enforcement official or a school administrator, then the
physician, clinical psychologist, qualified examiner shall
notify the Department of Human Services and a law enforcement
official or school administrator shall notify the Department of
State Police, within 24 hours of making the determination that
the person poses a clear and present danger. The Department of
Human Services shall immediately update its records and
information relating to mental health and developmental
disabilities, and if appropriate, shall notify the Department
of State Police in a form and manner prescribed by the
Department of State Police. Information disclosed under this
Section shall remain privileged and confidential, and shall not
be redisclosed, except as required under subsection (e) of
Section 3.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, nor
used for any other purpose. The method of providing this
information shall guarantee that the information is not
released beyond that which is necessary for the purpose of this
Section and shall be provided by rule by the Department of
Human Services. The identity of the person reporting under this
Section shall not be disclosed to the subject of the report.
The physician, clinical psychologist, qualified examiner, law
enforcement official, or school administrator making the
determination and his or her employer shall not be held
criminally, civilly, or professionally liable for making or not
making the notification required under this Section, except for
willful or wanton misconduct. This Section does not apply to a
law enforcement official, if making the notification under this
Section will interfere with an ongoing or pending criminal
investigation.
For the purposes of this Section:
"Clear and present danger" has the meaning ascribed to
it in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card
Act.
"Determined to pose a clear and present danger to
himself, herself, or to others by a physician, clinical
psychologist, or qualified examiner" means in the
professional opinion of the physician, clinical
psychologist, or qualified examiner, a person poses a clear
and present danger.
"School administrator" means the person required to
report under the School Administrator Reporting of Mental
Health Clear and Present Danger Determinations Law.
(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)
Section 10. The Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is
amended by changing Sections 1.1, 2, 3, 3a, and 10 as follows:
(430 ILCS 65/1.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-1.1)
Sec. 1.1. For purposes of this Act:
"Addicted to narcotics" means a person who has been:
(1) convicted of an offense involving the use or
possession of cannabis, a controlled substance, or
methamphetamine within the past year; or
(2) determined by the Department of State Police to be
addicted to narcotics based upon federal law or federal
guidelines.
"Addicted to narcotics" does not include possession or use
of a prescribed controlled substance under the direction and
authority of a physician or other person authorized to
prescribe the controlled substance when the controlled
substance is used in the prescribed manner.
"Adjudicated as a mentally disabled person" means the
person is the subject of a determination by a court, board,
commission or other lawful authority that the person, as a
result of marked subnormal intelligence, or mental illness,
mental impairment, incompetency, condition, or disease:
(1) presents a clear and present danger to himself,
herself, or to others;
(2) lacks the mental capacity to manage his or her own
affairs or is adjudicated a disabled person as defined in
Section 11a-2 of the Probate Act of 1975;
(3) is not guilty in a criminal case by reason of
insanity, mental disease or defect;
(3.5) is guilty but mentally ill, as provided in
Section 5-2-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections;
(4) is incompetent to stand trial in a criminal case;
(5) is not guilty by reason of lack of mental
responsibility under Articles 50a and 72b of the Uniform
Code of Military Justice, 10 U.S.C. 850a, 876b;
(6) is a sexually violent person under subsection (f)
of Section 5 of the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment
Act;
(7) is a sexually dangerous person under the Sexually
Dangerous Persons Act;
(8) is unfit to stand trial under the Juvenile Court
Act of 1987;
(9) is not guilty by reason of insanity under the
Juvenile Court Act of 1987;
(10) is subject to involuntary admission as an
inpatient as defined in Section 1-119 of the Mental Health
and Developmental Disabilities Code;
(11) is subject to involuntary admission as an
outpatient as defined in Section 1-119.1 of the Mental
Health and Developmental Disabilities Code;
(12) is subject to judicial admission as set forth in
Section 4-500 of the Mental Health and Developmental
Disabilities Code; or
(13) is subject to the provisions of the Interstate
Agreements on Sexually Dangerous Persons Act.
"Clear and present danger" means a person who:
(1) communicates a serious threat of physical violence
against a reasonably identifiable victim or poses a clear
and imminent risk of serious physical injury to himself,
herself, or another person as determined by a physician,
clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner; or
(2) demonstrates threatening physical or verbal
behavior, such as violent, suicidal, or assaultive
threats, actions, or other behavior, as determined by a
physician, clinical psychologist, qualified examiner,
school administrator, or law enforcement official.
"Clinical psychologist" has the meaning provided in
Section 1-103 of the Mental Health and Developmental
Disabilities Code.
"Controlled substance" means a controlled substance or
controlled substance analog as defined in the Illinois
Controlled Substances Act.
"Counterfeit" means to copy or imitate, without legal
authority, with intent to deceive.
"Developmentally disabled" means a disability which is
attributable to any other condition which results in impairment
similar to that caused by an intellectual disability and which
requires services similar to those required by intellectually
disabled persons. The disability must originate before the age
of 18 years, be expected to continue indefinitely, and
constitute a substantial disability handicap.
This disability results in the professional opinion of a
physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner, in
significant functional limitations in 3 or more of the
following areas of major life activity:
(i) self-care;
(ii) receptive and expressive language;
(iii) learning;
(iv) mobility; or
(v) self-direction.
"Federally licensed firearm dealer" means a person who is
licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the
federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923).
"Firearm" means any device, by whatever name known, which
is designed to expel a projectile or projectiles by the action
of an explosion, expansion of gas or escape of gas; excluding,
however:
(1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or
B-B gun which expels a single globular projectile not
exceeding .18 inch in diameter or which has a maximum
muzzle velocity of less than 700 feet per second;
(1.1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or
B-B gun which expels breakable paint balls containing
washable marking colors;
(2) any device used exclusively for signalling or
safety and required or recommended by the United States
Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce Commission;
(3) any device used exclusively for the firing of stud
cartridges, explosive rivets or similar industrial
ammunition; and
(4) an antique firearm (other than a machine-gun)
which, although designed as a weapon, the Department of
State Police finds by reason of the date of its
manufacture, value, design, and other characteristics is
primarily a collector's item and is not likely to be used
as a weapon.
"Firearm ammunition" means any self-contained cartridge or
shotgun shell, by whatever name known, which is designed to be
used or adaptable to use in a firearm; excluding, however:
(1) any ammunition exclusively designed for use with a
device used exclusively for signalling or safety and
required or recommended by the United States Coast Guard or
the Interstate Commerce Commission; and
(2) any ammunition designed exclusively for use with a
stud or rivet driver or other similar industrial
ammunition.
"Gun show" means an event or function:
(1) at which the sale and transfer of firearms is the
regular and normal course of business and where 50 or more
firearms are displayed, offered, or exhibited for sale,
transfer, or exchange; or
(2) at which not less than 10 gun show vendors display,
offer, or exhibit for sale, sell, transfer, or exchange
firearms.
"Gun show" includes the entire premises provided for an
event or function, including parking areas for the event or
function, that is sponsored to facilitate the purchase, sale,
transfer, or exchange of firearms as described in this Section.
Nothing in this definition shall be construed to exclude a gun
show held in conjunction with competitive shooting events at
the World Shooting Complex sanctioned by a national governing
body in which the sale or transfer of firearms is authorized
under subparagraph (5) of paragraph (g) of subsection (A) of
Section 24-3 of the Criminal Code of 2012.
Unless otherwise expressly stated, "gun show" "Gun show"
does not include training or safety classes, competitive
shooting events, such as rifle, shotgun, or handgun matches,
trap, skeet, or sporting clays shoots, dinners, banquets,
raffles, or any other event where the sale or transfer of
firearms is not the primary course of business.
"Gun show promoter" means a person who organizes or
operates a gun show.
"Gun show vendor" means a person who exhibits, sells,
offers for sale, transfers, or exchanges any firearms at a gun
show, regardless of whether the person arranges with a gun show
promoter for a fixed location from which to exhibit, sell,
offer for sale, transfer, or exchange any firearm.
"Intellectually disabled" means significantly subaverage
general intellectual functioning which exists concurrently
with impairment in adaptive behavior and which originates
before the age of 18 years.
"Involuntarily admitted" has the meaning as prescribed in
Sections 1-119 and 1-119.1 of the Mental Health and
Developmental Disabilities Code.
"Mental health facility" means any licensed private
hospital or hospital affiliate, institution, or facility, or
part thereof, and any facility, or part thereof, operated by
the State or a political subdivision thereof which provide
treatment of persons with mental illness and includes all
hospitals, institutions, clinics, evaluation facilities,
mental health centers, colleges, universities, long-term care
facilities, and nursing homes, or parts thereof, which provide
treatment of persons with mental illness whether or not the
primary purpose is to provide treatment of persons with mental
illness.
"National governing body" means a group of persons who
adopt rules and formulate policy on behalf of a national
firearm sporting organization.
"Patient" means:
(1) a person who voluntarily receives mental health
treatment as an in-patient or resident of any public or
private mental health facility, unless the treatment was
solely for an alcohol abuse disorder and no other secondary
substance abuse disorder or mental illness; or
(2) a person who voluntarily receives mental health
treatment as an out-patient or is provided services by a
public or private mental health facility, and who poses a
clear and present danger to himself, herself, or to others.
"Physician" has the meaning as defined in Section 1-120 of
the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.
"Qualified examiner" has the meaning provided in Section
1-122 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.
"Sanctioned competitive shooting event" means a shooting
contest officially recognized by a national or state shooting
sport association, and includes any sight-in or practice
conducted in conjunction with the event.
"School administrator" means the person required to report
under the School Administrator Reporting of Mental Health Clear
and Present Danger Determinations Law.
"Stun gun or taser" has the meaning ascribed to it in
Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.
(Source: P.A. 97-776, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13;
97-1167, eff. 6-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)
(430 ILCS 65/2) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-2)
Sec. 2. Firearm Owner's Identification Card required;
exceptions.
(a) (1) No person may acquire or possess any firearm, stun
gun, or taser within this State without having in his or
her possession a Firearm Owner's Identification Card
previously issued in his or her name by the Department of
State Police under the provisions of this Act.
(2) No person may acquire or possess firearm ammunition
within this State without having in his or her possession a
Firearm Owner's Identification Card previously issued in
his or her name by the Department of State Police under the
provisions of this Act.
(b) The provisions of this Section regarding the possession
of firearms, firearm ammunition, stun guns, and tasers do not
apply to:
(1) United States Marshals, while engaged in the
operation of their official duties;
(2) Members of the Armed Forces of the United States or
the National Guard, while engaged in the operation of their
official duties;
(3) Federal officials required to carry firearms,
while engaged in the operation of their official duties;
(4) Members of bona fide veterans organizations which
receive firearms directly from the armed forces of the
United States, while using the firearms for ceremonial
purposes with blank ammunition;
(5) Nonresident hunters during hunting season, with
valid nonresident hunting licenses and while in an area
where hunting is permitted; however, at all other times and
in all other places these persons must have their firearms
unloaded and enclosed in a case;
(6) Those hunters exempt from obtaining a hunting
license who are required to submit their Firearm Owner's
Identification Card when hunting on Department of Natural
Resources owned or managed sites;
(7) Nonresidents while on a firing or shooting range
recognized by the Department of State Police; however,
these persons must at all other times and in all other
places have their firearms unloaded and enclosed in a case;
(8) Nonresidents while at a firearm showing or display
recognized by the Department of State Police; however, at
all other times and in all other places these persons must
have their firearms unloaded and enclosed in a case;
(9) Nonresidents whose firearms are unloaded and
enclosed in a case;
(10) Nonresidents who are currently licensed or
registered to possess a firearm in their resident state;
(11) Unemancipated minors while in the custody and
immediate control of their parent or legal guardian or
other person in loco parentis to the minor if the parent or
legal guardian or other person in loco parentis to the
minor has a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification
Card;
(12) Color guards of bona fide veterans organizations
or members of bona fide American Legion bands while using
firearms for ceremonial purposes with blank ammunition;
(13) Nonresident hunters whose state of residence does
not require them to be licensed or registered to possess a
firearm and only during hunting season, with valid hunting
licenses, while accompanied by, and using a firearm owned
by, a person who possesses a valid Firearm Owner's
Identification Card and while in an area within a
commercial club licensed under the Wildlife Code where
hunting is permitted and controlled, but in no instance
upon sites owned or managed by the Department of Natural
Resources;
(14) Resident hunters who are properly authorized to
hunt and, while accompanied by a person who possesses a
valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card, hunt in an area
within a commercial club licensed under the Wildlife Code
where hunting is permitted and controlled;
(15) A person who is otherwise eligible to obtain a
Firearm Owner's Identification Card under this Act and is
under the direct supervision of a holder of a Firearm
Owner's Identification Card who is 21 years of age or older
while the person is on a firing or shooting range or is a
participant in a firearms safety and training course
recognized by a law enforcement agency or a national,
statewide shooting sports organization; and
(16) Competitive shooting athletes whose competition
firearms are sanctioned by the International Olympic
Committee, the International Paralympic Committee, the
International Shooting Sport Federation, or USA Shooting
in connection with such athletes' training for and
participation in shooting competitions at the 2016 Olympic
and Paralympic Games and sanctioned test events leading up
to the 2016 Olympic and Paralympic Games.
(c) The provisions of this Section regarding the
acquisition and possession of firearms, firearm ammunition,
stun guns, and tasers do not apply to law enforcement officials
of this or any other jurisdiction, while engaged in the
operation of their official duties.
(c-5) The provisions of paragraphs (1) and (2) of
subsection (a) of this Section regarding the possession of
firearms and firearm ammunition do not apply to the holder of a
valid concealed carry license issued under the Firearm
Concealed Carry Act who is in physical possession of the
concealed carry license.
(d) Any person who becomes a resident of this State, who is
not otherwise prohibited from obtaining, possessing, or using a
firearm or firearm ammunition, shall not be required to have a
Firearm Owner's Identification Card to possess firearms or
firearms ammunition until 60 calendar days after he or she
obtains an Illinois driver's license or Illinois
Identification Card.
(Source: P.A. 96-7, eff. 4-3-09; 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13.)
(430 ILCS 65/3) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-3)
Sec. 3. (a) Except as provided in Section 3a, no person may
knowingly transfer, or cause to be transferred, any firearm,
firearm ammunition, stun gun, or taser to any person within
this State unless the transferee with whom he deals displays
either: (1) a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification
Card which has previously been issued in his or her name by the
Department of State Police under the provisions of this Act; or
(2) a currently valid license to carry a concealed firearm
which has previously been issued in his or her name by the
Department of State Police under the Firearm Concealed Carry
Act. In addition, all firearm, stun gun, and taser transfers by
federally licensed firearm dealers are subject to Section 3.1.
(a-5) Any person who is not a federally licensed firearm
dealer and who desires to transfer or sell a firearm while that
person is on the grounds of a gun show must, before selling or
transferring the firearm, request the Department of State
Police to conduct a background check on the prospective
recipient of the firearm in accordance with Section 3.1.
(a-10) Notwithstanding item (2) of subsection (a) of this
Section, any Any person who is not a federally licensed firearm
dealer and who desires to transfer or sell a firearm or
firearms to any person who is not a federally licensed firearm
dealer shall, before selling or transferring the firearms,
contact the Department of State Police with the transferee's or
purchaser's Firearm Owner's Identification Card number to
determine the validity of the transferee's or purchaser's
Firearm Owner's Identification Card. This subsection shall not
be effective until January 1, 2014. The Department of State
Police may adopt rules concerning the implementation of this
subsection. The Department of State Police shall provide the
seller or transferor an approval number if the purchaser's
Firearm Owner's Identification Card is valid. Approvals issued
by the Department for the purchase of a firearm pursuant to
this subsection are valid for 30 days from the date of issue.
(a-15) The provisions of subsection (a-10) of this Section
do not apply to:
(1) transfers that occur at the place of business of a
federally licensed firearm dealer, if the federally
licensed firearm dealer conducts a background check on the
prospective recipient of the firearm in accordance with
Section 3.1 of this Act and follows all other applicable
federal, State, and local laws as if he or she were the
seller or transferor of the firearm, although the dealer is
not required to accept the firearm into his or her
inventory. The purchaser or transferee may be required by
the federally licensed firearm dealer to pay a fee not to
exceed $10 per firearm, which the dealer may retain as
compensation for performing the functions required under
this paragraph, plus the applicable fees authorized by
Section 3.1;
(2) transfers as a bona fide gift to the transferor's
husband, wife, son, daughter, stepson, stepdaughter,
father, mother, stepfather, stepmother, brother, sister,
nephew, niece, uncle, aunt, grandfather, grandmother,
grandson, granddaughter, father-in-law, mother-in-law,
son-in-law, or daughter-in-law;
(3) transfers by persons acting pursuant to operation
of law or a court order;
(4) transfers on the grounds of a gun show under
subsection (a-5) of this Section;
(5) the delivery of a firearm by its owner to a
gunsmith for service or repair, the return of the firearm
to its owner by the gunsmith, or the delivery of a firearm
by a gunsmith to a federally licensed firearms dealer for
service or repair and the return of the firearm to the
gunsmith;
(6) temporary transfers that occur while in the home of
the unlicensed transferee, if the unlicensed transferee is
not otherwise prohibited from possessing firearms and the
unlicensed transferee reasonably believes that possession
of the firearm is necessary to prevent imminent death or
great bodily harm to the unlicensed transferee;
(7) transfers to a law enforcement or corrections
agency or a law enforcement or corrections officer acting
within the course and scope of his or her official duties;
(8) transfers of firearms that have been rendered
permanently inoperable to a nonprofit historical society,
museum, or institutional collection; and
(9) transfers to a person who is exempt from the
requirement of possessing a Firearm Owner's Identification
Card under Section 2 of this Act.
(a-20) The Department of State Police shall develop an
Internet-based system for individuals to determine the
validity of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card prior to the
sale or transfer of a firearm. The Department shall have the
Internet-based system completed and available for use by July
1, 2015. The Department shall adopt rules not inconsistent with
this Section to implement this system.
(b) Any person within this State who transfers or causes to
be transferred any firearm, stun gun, or taser shall keep a
record of such transfer for a period of 10 years from the date
of transfer. Such record shall contain the date of the
transfer; the description, serial number or other information
identifying the firearm, stun gun, or taser if no serial number
is available; and, if the transfer was completed within this
State, the transferee's Firearm Owner's Identification Card
number and any approval number or documentation provided by the
Department of State Police pursuant to subsection (a-10) of
this Section. On or after January 1, 2006, the record shall
contain the date of application for transfer of the firearm. On
demand of a peace officer such transferor shall produce for
inspection such record of transfer. If the transfer or sale
took place at a gun show, the record shall include the unique
identification number. Failure to record the unique
identification number or approval number is a petty offense.
(b-5) Any resident may purchase ammunition from a person
within or outside of Illinois if shipment is by United States
mail or by a private express carrier authorized by federal law
to ship ammunition. Any resident purchasing ammunition within
or outside the State of Illinois must provide the seller with a
copy of his or her valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card or
valid concealed carry license and either his or her Illinois
driver's license or Illinois State Identification Card prior to
the shipment of the ammunition. The ammunition may be shipped
only to an address on either of those 2 documents.
(c) The provisions of this Section regarding the transfer
of firearm ammunition shall not apply to those persons
specified in paragraph (b) of Section 2 of this Act.
(Source: P.A. 97-1135, eff. 12-4-12; 98-508, eff. 8-19-13.)
(430 ILCS 65/3a) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-3a)
Sec. 3a. (a) Any resident of Illinois who has obtained a
firearm owner's identification card pursuant to this Act and
who is not otherwise prohibited from obtaining, possessing or
using a firearm may purchase or obtain a rifle or shotgun or
ammunition for a rifle or shotgun in Iowa, Missouri, Indiana,
Wisconsin or Kentucky.
(b) Any resident of Iowa, Missouri, Indiana, Wisconsin or
Kentucky or a non-resident with a valid non-resident hunting
license, who is 18 years of age or older and who is not
prohibited by the laws of Illinois, the state of his domicile,
or the United States from obtaining, possessing or using a
firearm, may purchase or obtain a rifle, shotgun or ammunition
for a rifle or shotgun in Illinois.
(b-5) Any non-resident who is participating in a sanctioned
competitive shooting event, who is 18 years of age or older and
who is not prohibited by the laws of Illinois, the state of his
or her domicile, or the United States from obtaining,
possessing, or using a firearm, may purchase or obtain a
shotgun or shotgun ammunition in Illinois for the purpose of
participating in that event. A person may purchase or obtain a
shotgun or shotgun ammunition under this subsection only at the
site where the sanctioned competitive shooting event is being
held.
(b-10) Any non-resident registered competitor or attendee
of a competitive shooting event held at the World Shooting
Complex sanctioned by a national governing body, who is not
prohibited by the laws of Illinois, the state of his or her
domicile, or the United States from obtaining, possessing, or
using a firearm may purchase or obtain a rifle, shotgun, or
other long gun or ammunition for a rifle, shotgun, or other
long gun at the competitive shooting event. The sanctioning
body shall provide a list of registered competitors and
attendees as required under subparagraph (5) of paragraph (g)
of subsection (A) of Section 24-3 of the Criminal Code of 2012.
A competitor or attendee of a competitive shooting event who
does not wish to purchase a firearm at the event is not
required to register or have his or her name appear on a list
of registered competitors and attendees provided to the
Department of State Police by the sanctioning body.
(c) Any transaction under this Section is subject to the
provisions of the Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 922
(b)(3)).
(Source: P.A. 94-353, eff. 7-29-05.)
(430 ILCS 65/10) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-10)
Sec. 10. Appeal to director; hearing; relief from firearm
prohibitions.
(a) Whenever an application for a Firearm Owner's
Identification Card is denied, whenever the Department fails to
act on an application within 30 days of its receipt, or
whenever such a Card is revoked or seized as provided for in
Section 8 of this Act, the aggrieved party may appeal to the
Director of State Police for a hearing upon such denial,
revocation or seizure, unless the denial, revocation, or
seizure was based upon a forcible felony, stalking, aggravated
stalking, domestic battery, any violation of the Illinois
Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and
Community Protection Act, or the Cannabis Control Act that is
classified as a Class 2 or greater felony, any felony violation
of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code
of 2012, or any adjudication as a delinquent minor for the
commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be
a felony, in which case the aggrieved party may petition the
circuit court in writing in the county of his or her residence
for a hearing upon such denial, revocation, or seizure.
(b) At least 30 days before any hearing in the circuit
court, the petitioner shall serve the relevant State's Attorney
with a copy of the petition. The State's Attorney may object to
the petition and present evidence. At the hearing the court
shall determine whether substantial justice has been done.
Should the court determine that substantial justice has not
been done, the court shall issue an order directing the
Department of State Police to issue a Card. However, the court
shall not issue the order if the petitioner is otherwise
prohibited from obtaining, possessing, or using a firearm under
federal law.
(c) Any person prohibited from possessing a firearm under
Sections 24-1.1 or 24-3.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or
acquiring a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 8
of this Act may apply to the Director of State Police or
petition the circuit court in the county where the petitioner
resides, whichever is applicable in accordance with subsection
(a) of this Section, requesting relief from such prohibition
and the Director or court may grant such relief if it is
established by the applicant to the court's or Director's
satisfaction that:
(0.05) when in the circuit court, the State's Attorney
has been served with a written copy of the petition at
least 30 days before any such hearing in the circuit court
and at the hearing the State's Attorney was afforded an
opportunity to present evidence and object to the petition;
(1) the applicant has not been convicted of a forcible
felony under the laws of this State or any other
jurisdiction within 20 years of the applicant's
application for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or
at least 20 years have passed since the end of any period
of imprisonment imposed in relation to that conviction;
(2) the circumstances regarding a criminal conviction,
where applicable, the applicant's criminal history and his
reputation are such that the applicant will not be likely
to act in a manner dangerous to public safety;
(3) granting relief would not be contrary to the public
interest; and
(4) granting relief would not be contrary to federal
law.
(c-5) (1) An active law enforcement officer employed by a
unit of government, who is denied, revoked, or has his or her
Firearm Owner's Identification Card seized under subsection
(e) of Section 8 of this Act may apply to the Director of State
Police requesting relief if the officer did not act in a manner
threatening to the officer, another person, or the public as
determined by the treating clinical psychologist or physician,
and as a result of his or her work is referred by the employer
for or voluntarily seeks mental health evaluation or treatment
by a licensed clinical psychologist, psychiatrist, or
qualified examiner, and:
(A) the officer has not received treatment
involuntarily at a mental health facility, regardless of
the length of admission; or has not been voluntarily
admitted to a mental health facility for more than 30 days
and not for more than one incident within the past 5 years;
and
(B) the officer has not left the mental institution
against medical advice.
(2) The Director of State Police shall grant expedited
relief to active law enforcement officers described in
paragraph (1) of this subsection (c-5) upon a determination by
the Director that the officer's possession of a firearm does
not present a threat to themselves, others, or public safety.
The Director shall act on the request for relief within 30
business days of receipt of:
(A) a notarized statement from the officer in the form
prescribed by the Director detailing the circumstances
that led to the hospitalization;
(B) all documentation regarding the admission,
evaluation, treatment and discharge from the treating
licensed clinical psychologist or psychiatrist of the
officer;
(C) a psychological fitness for duty evaluation of the
person completed after the time of discharge; and
(D) written confirmation in the form prescribed by the
Director from the treating licensed clinical psychologist
or psychiatrist that the provisions set forth in paragraph
(1) of this subsection (c-5) have been met, the person
successfully completed treatment, and their professional
opinion regarding the person's ability to possess
firearms.
(3) Officers eligible for the expedited relief in paragraph
(2) of this subsection (c-5) have the burden of proof on
eligibility and must provide all information required. The
Director may not consider granting expedited relief until the
proof and information is received.
(4) "Clinical psychologist", "psychiatrist", and
"qualified examiner" shall have the same meaning as provided in
Chapter I 1 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities
Code.
(c-10) (1) An applicant, who is denied, revoked, or has his
or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card seized under
subsection (e) of Section 8 of this Act based upon a
determination of a developmental disability or an intellectual
disability may apply to the Director of State Police requesting
relief.
(2) The Director shall act on the request for relief within
60 business days of receipt of written certification, in the
form prescribed by the Director, from a physician or clinical
psychologist, or qualified examiner, that the aggrieved
party's developmental disability or intellectual disability
condition is determined by a physician, clinical psychologist,
or qualified to be mild. If a fact-finding conference is
scheduled to obtain additional information concerning the
circumstances of the denial or revocation, the 60 business days
the Director has to act shall be tolled until the completion of
the fact-finding conference.
(3) The Director may grant relief if the aggrieved party's
developmental disability or intellectual disability is mild as
determined by a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified
examiner and it is established by the applicant to the
Director's satisfaction that:
(A) granting relief would not be contrary to the public
interest; and
(B) granting relief would not be contrary to federal
law.
(4) The Director may not grant relief if the condition is
determined by a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified
examiner to be moderate, severe, or profound.
(5) The changes made to this Section by this amendatory Act
of the 99th General Assembly apply to requests for relief
pending on or before the effective date of this amendatory Act,
except that the 60-day period for the Director to act on
requests pending before the effective date shall begin on the
effective date of this amendatory Act.
(d) When a minor is adjudicated delinquent for an offense
which if committed by an adult would be a felony, the court
shall notify the Department of State Police.
(e) The court shall review the denial of an application or
the revocation of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card of a
person who has been adjudicated delinquent for an offense that
if committed by an adult would be a felony if an application
for relief has been filed at least 10 years after the
adjudication of delinquency and the court determines that the
applicant should be granted relief from disability to obtain a
Firearm Owner's Identification Card. If the court grants
relief, the court shall notify the Department of State Police
that the disability has been removed and that the applicant is
eligible to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card.
(f) Any person who is subject to the disabilities of 18
U.S.C. 922(d)(4) and 922(g)(4) of the federal Gun Control Act
of 1968 because of an adjudication or commitment that occurred
under the laws of this State or who was determined to be
subject to the provisions of subsections (e), (f), or (g) of
Section 8 of this Act may apply to the Department of State
Police requesting relief from that prohibition. The Director
shall grant the relief if it is established by a preponderance
of the evidence that the person will not be likely to act in a
manner dangerous to public safety and that granting relief
would not be contrary to the public interest. In making this
determination, the Director shall receive evidence concerning
(i) the circumstances regarding the firearms disabilities from
which relief is sought; (ii) the petitioner's mental health and
criminal history records, if any; (iii) the petitioner's
reputation, developed at a minimum through character witness
statements, testimony, or other character evidence; and (iv)
changes in the petitioner's condition or circumstances since
the disqualifying events relevant to the relief sought. If
relief is granted under this subsection or by order of a court
under this Section, the Director shall as soon as practicable
but in no case later than 15 business days, update, correct,
modify, or remove the person's record in any database that the
Department of State Police makes available to the National
Instant Criminal Background Check System and notify the United
States Attorney General that the basis for the record being
made available no longer applies. The Department of State
Police shall adopt rules for the administration of this
Section.
(Source: P.A. 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13;
97-1167, eff. 6-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; revised 12-10-14.)
Section 15. The Firearm Concealed Carry Act is amended by
changing Sections 10, 30, 55, and 65 as follows:
(430 ILCS 66/10)
Sec. 10. Issuance of licenses to carry a concealed firearm.
(a) The Department shall issue a license to carry a
concealed firearm under this Act to an applicant who:
(1) meets the qualifications of Section 25 of this Act;
(2) has provided the application and documentation
required in Section 30 of this Act;
(3) has submitted the requisite fees; and
(4) does not pose a danger to himself, herself, or
others, or a threat to public safety as determined by the
Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board in accordance with
Section 20.
(b) The Department shall issue a renewal, corrected, or
duplicate license as provided in this Act.
(c) A license shall be valid throughout the State for a
period of 5 years from the date of issuance. A license shall
permit the licensee to:
(1) carry a loaded or unloaded concealed firearm, fully
concealed or partially concealed, on or about his or her
person; and
(2) keep or carry a loaded or unloaded concealed
firearm on or about his or her person within a vehicle.
(d) The Department shall make applications for a license
available no later than 180 days after the effective date of
this Act. The Department shall establish rules for the
availability and submission of applications in accordance with
this Act.
(e) An application for a license submitted to the
Department that contains all the information and materials
required by this Act, including the requisite fee, shall be
deemed completed. Except as otherwise provided in this Act, no
later than 90 days after receipt of a completed application,
the Department shall issue or deny the applicant a license.
(f) The Department shall deny the applicant a license if
the applicant fails to meet the requirements under this Act or
the Department receives a determination from the Board that the
applicant is ineligible for a license. The Department must
notify the applicant stating the grounds for the denial. The
notice of denial must inform the applicant of his or her right
to an appeal through administrative and judicial review.
(g) A licensee shall possess a license at all times the
licensee carries a concealed firearm except:
(1) when the licensee is carrying or possessing a
concealed firearm on his or her land or in his or her
abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on
the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an
invitee with that person's permission;
(2) when the person is authorized to carry a firearm
under Section 24-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012, except
subsection (a-5) of that Section; or
(3) when the handgun is broken down in a
non-functioning state, is not immediately accessible, or
is unloaded and enclosed in a case.
(h) If an officer of a law enforcement agency initiates an
investigative stop, including but not limited to a traffic
stop, of a licensee or a non-resident carrying a concealed
firearm under subsection (e) of Section 40 of this Act, upon
the request of the officer the licensee or non-resident shall
disclose to the officer that he or she is in possession of a
concealed firearm under this Act, or present the license upon
the request of the officer if he or she is a licensee or
present upon the request of the officer evidence under
paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 40 of this Act that
he or she is a non-resident qualified to carry under that
subsection. The disclosure requirement under this subsection
(h) is satisfied if the licensee presents his or her license to
the officer or the non-resident presents to the officer
evidence under paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 40 of
this Act that he or she is qualified to carry under that
subsection. Upon the request of the officer, the licensee or
non-resident shall also , and identify the location of the
concealed firearm and permit the officer to safely secure the
firearm for the duration of the investigative stop. During a
traffic stop, any passenger within the vehicle who is a
licensee or a non-resident carrying under subsection (e) of
Section 40 of this Act must comply with the requirements of
this subsection (h).
(h-1) If a licensee carrying a firearm or a non-resident
carrying a firearm in a vehicle under subsection (e) of Section
40 of this Act is contacted by a law enforcement officer or
emergency services personnel, the law enforcement officer or
emergency services personnel may secure the firearm or direct
that it be secured during the duration of the contact if the
law enforcement officer or emergency services personnel
determines that it is necessary for the safety of any person
present, including the law enforcement officer or emergency
services personnel. The licensee or nonresident shall submit to
the order to secure the firearm. When the law enforcement
officer or emergency services personnel have determined that
the licensee or non-resident is not a threat to the safety of
any person present, including the law enforcement officer or
emergency services personnel, and if the licensee or
non-resident is physically and mentally capable of possessing
the firearm, the law enforcement officer or emergency services
personnel shall return the firearm to the licensee or
non-resident before releasing him or her from the scene and
breaking contact. If the licensee or non-resident is
transported for treatment to another location, the firearm
shall be turned over to any peace officer. The peace officer
shall provide a receipt which includes the make, model,
caliber, and serial number of the firearm.
(i) The Department shall maintain a database of license
applicants and licensees. The database shall be available to
all federal, State, and local law enforcement agencies, State's
Attorneys, the Attorney General, and authorized court
personnel. Within 180 days after the effective date of this
Act, the database shall be searchable and provide all
information included in the application, including the
applicant's previous addresses within the 10 years prior to the
license application and any information related to violations
of this Act. No law enforcement agency, State's Attorney,
Attorney General, or member or staff of the judiciary shall
provide any information to a requester who is not entitled to
it by law.
(j) No later than 10 days after receipt of a completed
application, the Department shall enter the relevant
information about the applicant into the database under
subsection (i) of this Section which is accessible by law
enforcement agencies.
(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-600, eff. 12-6-13.)
(430 ILCS 66/30)
Sec. 30. Contents of license application.
(a) The license application shall be in writing, under
penalty of perjury, on a standard form adopted by the
Department and shall be accompanied by the documentation
required in this Section and the applicable fee. Each
application form shall include the following statement printed
in bold type: "Warning: Entering false information on this form
is punishable as perjury under Section 32-2 of the Criminal
Code of 2012."
(b) The application shall contain the following:
(1) the applicant's name, current address, date and
year of birth, place of birth, height, weight, hair color,
eye color, maiden name or any other name the applicant has
used or identified with, and any address where the
applicant resided for more than 30 days within the 10 years
preceding the date of the license application;
(2) the applicant's valid driver's license number or
valid state identification card number;
(3) a waiver of the applicant's privacy and
confidentiality rights and privileges under all federal
and state laws, including those limiting access to juvenile
court, criminal justice, psychological, or psychiatric
records or records relating to any institutionalization of
the applicant, and an affirmative request that a person
having custody of any of these records provide it or
information concerning it to the Department. The waiver
only applies to records sought in connection with
determining whether the applicant qualifies for a license
to carry a concealed firearm under this Act, or whether the
applicant remains in compliance with the Firearm Owners
Identification Card Act;
(4) an affirmation that the applicant possesses a
currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card and
card number if possessed or notice the applicant is
applying for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card in
conjunction with the license application;
(5) an affirmation that the applicant has not been
convicted or found guilty of:
(A) a felony;
(B) a misdemeanor involving the use or threat of
physical force or violence to any person within the 5
years preceding the date of the application; or
(C) 2 or more violations related to driving while
under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs,
intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination
thereof, within the 5 years preceding the date of the
license application; and
(6) whether the applicant has failed a drug test for a
drug for which the applicant did not have a prescription,
within the previous year, and if so, the provider of the
test, the specific substance involved, and the date of the
test;
(7) written consent for the Department to review and
use the applicant's Illinois digital driver's license or
Illinois identification card photograph and signature;
(8) a full set of fingerprints submitted to the
Department in electronic format, provided the Department
may accept an application submitted without a set of
fingerprints in which case the Department shall be granted
30 days in addition to the 90 days provided under
subsection (e) of Section 10 of this Act to issue or deny a
license;
(9) a head and shoulder color photograph in a size
specified by the Department taken within the 30 days
preceding the date of the license application; and
(10) a photocopy of any certificates or other evidence
of compliance with the training requirements under this
Act.
(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)
(430 ILCS 66/55)
Sec. 55. Change of address or name; lost, destroyed, or
stolen licenses.
(a) A licensee shall notify the Department within 30 days
of moving or changing residence or any change of name. The
licensee shall submit the requisite fee and the Department may
require a notarized statement that the licensee has changed his
or her residence or his or her name, including the prior and
current address or name and the date the applicant moved or
changed his or her name. :
(1) a notarized statement that the licensee has changed
his or her residence or his or her name, including the
prior and current address or name and the date the
applicant moved or changed his or her name; and
(2) the requisite fee.
(b) A licensee shall notify the Department within 10 days
of discovering that a license has been lost, destroyed, or
stolen. A lost, destroyed, or stolen license is invalid. To
request a replacement license, the licensee shall submit:
(1) a notarized statement that the licensee no longer
possesses the license, and that it was lost, destroyed, or
stolen;
(2) if applicable, a copy of a police report stating
that the license was stolen; and
(3) the requisite fee.
(c) A violation of this Section is a petty offense with a
fine of $150 which shall be deposited into the Mental Health
Reporting Fund.
(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)
(430 ILCS 66/65)
Sec. 65. Prohibited areas.
(a) A licensee under this Act shall not knowingly carry a
firearm on or into:
(1) Any building, real property, and parking area under
the control of a public or private elementary or secondary
school.
(2) Any building, real property, and parking area under
the control of a pre-school or child care facility,
including any room or portion of a building under the
control of a pre-school or child care facility. Nothing in
this paragraph shall prevent the operator of a child care
facility in a family home from owning or possessing a
firearm in the home or license under this Act, if no child
under child care at the home is present in the home or the
firearm in the home is stored in a locked container when a
child under child care at the home is present in the home.
(3) Any building, parking area, or portion of a
building under the control of an officer of the executive
or legislative branch of government, provided that nothing
in this paragraph shall prohibit a licensee from carrying a
concealed firearm onto the real property, bikeway, or trail
in a park regulated by the Department of Natural Resources
or any other designated public hunting area or building
where firearm possession is permitted as established by the
Department of Natural Resources under Section 1.8 of the
Wildlife Code.
(4) Any building designated for matters before a
circuit court, appellate court, or the Supreme Court, or
any building or portion of a building under the control of
the Supreme Court.
(5) Any building or portion of a building under the
control of a unit of local government.
(6) Any building, real property, and parking area under
the control of an adult or juvenile detention or
correctional institution, prison, or jail.
(7) Any building, real property, and parking area under
the control of a public or private hospital or hospital
affiliate, mental health facility, or nursing home.
(8) Any bus, train, or form of transportation paid for
in whole or in part with public funds, and any building,
real property, and parking area under the control of a
public transportation facility paid for in whole or in part
with public funds.
(9) Any building, real property, and parking area under
the control of an establishment that serves alcohol on its
premises, if more than 50% of the establishment's gross
receipts within the prior 3 months is from the sale of
alcohol. The owner of an establishment who knowingly fails
to prohibit concealed firearms on its premises as provided
in this paragraph or who knowingly makes a false statement
or record to avoid the prohibition on concealed firearms
under this paragraph is subject to the penalty under
subsection (c-5) of Section 10-1 of the Liquor Control Act
of 1934.
(10) Any public gathering or special event conducted on
property open to the public that requires the issuance of a
permit from the unit of local government, provided this
prohibition shall not apply to a licensee who must walk
through a public gathering in order to access his or her
residence, place of business, or vehicle.
(11) Any building or real property that has been issued
a Special Event Retailer's license as defined in Section
1-3.17.1 of the Liquor Control Act during the time
designated for the sale of alcohol by the Special Event
Retailer's license, or a Special use permit license as
defined in subsection (q) of Section 5-1 of the Liquor
Control Act during the time designated for the sale of
alcohol by the Special use permit license.
(12) Any public playground.
(13) Any public park, athletic area, or athletic
facility under the control of a municipality or park
district, provided nothing in this Section shall prohibit a
licensee from carrying a concealed firearm while on a trail
or bikeway if only a portion of the trail or bikeway
includes a public park.
(14) Any real property under the control of the Cook
County Forest Preserve District.
(15) Any building, classroom, laboratory, medical
clinic, hospital, artistic venue, athletic venue,
entertainment venue, officially recognized
university-related organization property, whether owned or
leased, and any real property, including parking areas,
sidewalks, and common areas under the control of a public
or private community college, college, or university.
(16) Any building, real property, or parking area under
the control of a gaming facility licensed under the
Riverboat Gambling Act or the Illinois Horse Racing Act of
1975, including an inter-track wagering location licensee.
(17) Any stadium, arena, or the real property or
parking area under the control of a stadium, arena, or any
collegiate or professional sporting event.
(18) Any building, real property, or parking area under
the control of a public library.
(19) Any building, real property, or parking area under
the control of an airport.
(20) Any building, real property, or parking area under
the control of an amusement park.
(21) Any building, real property, or parking area under
the control of a zoo or museum.
(22) Any street, driveway, parking area, property,
building, or facility, owned, leased, controlled, or used
by a nuclear energy, storage, weapons, or development site
or facility regulated by the federal Nuclear Regulatory
Commission. The licensee shall not under any circumstance
store a firearm or ammunition in his or her vehicle or in a
compartment or container within a vehicle located anywhere
in or on the street, driveway, parking area, property,
building, or facility described in this paragraph.
(23) Any area where firearms are prohibited under
federal law.
(a-5) Nothing in this Act shall prohibit a public or
private community college, college, or university from:
(1) prohibiting persons from carrying a firearm within
a vehicle owned, leased, or controlled by the college or
university;
(2) developing resolutions, regulations, or policies
regarding student, employee, or visitor misconduct and
discipline, including suspension and expulsion;
(3) developing resolutions, regulations, or policies
regarding the storage or maintenance of firearms, which
must include designated areas where persons can park
vehicles that carry firearms; and
(4) permitting the carrying or use of firearms for the
purpose of instruction and curriculum of officially
recognized programs, including but not limited to military
science and law enforcement training programs, or in any
designated area used for hunting purposes or target
shooting.
(a-10) The owner of private real property of any type may
prohibit the carrying of concealed firearms on the property
under his or her control. The owner must post a sign in
accordance with subsection (d) of this Section indicating that
firearms are prohibited on the property, unless the property is
a private residence.
(b) Notwithstanding subsections (a), (a-5), and (a-10) of
this Section except under paragraph (22) or (23) of subsection
(a), any licensee prohibited from carrying a concealed firearm
into the parking area of a prohibited location specified in
subsection (a), (a-5), or (a-10) of this Section shall be
permitted to carry a concealed firearm on or about his or her
person within a vehicle into the parking area and may store a
firearm or ammunition concealed in a case within a locked
vehicle or locked container out of plain view within the
vehicle in the parking area. A licensee may carry a concealed
firearm in the immediate area surrounding his or her vehicle
within a prohibited parking lot area only for the limited
purpose of storing or retrieving a firearm within the vehicle's
trunk, provided the licensee ensures the concealed firearm is
unloaded prior to exiting the vehicle. For purposes of this
subsection, "case" includes a glove compartment or console that
completely encloses the concealed firearm or ammunition, the
trunk of the vehicle, or a firearm carrying box, shipping box,
or other container.
(c) A licensee shall not be in violation of this Section
while he or she is traveling along a public right of way that
touches or crosses any of the premises under subsection (a),
(a-5), or (a-10) of this Section if the concealed firearm is
carried on his or her person in accordance with the provisions
of this Act or is being transported in a vehicle by the
licensee in accordance with all other applicable provisions of
law.
(d) Signs stating that the carrying of firearms is
prohibited shall be clearly and conspicuously posted at the
entrance of a building, premises, or real property specified in
this Section as a prohibited area, unless the building or
premises is a private residence. Signs shall be of a uniform
design as established by the Department and shall be 4 inches
by 6 inches in size. The Department shall adopt rules for
standardized signs to be used under this subsection.
(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)
Section 20. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by
changing Sections 24-1 and 24-3 as follows:
(720 ILCS 5/24-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-1)
Sec. 24-1. Unlawful Use of Weapons.
(a) A person commits the offense of unlawful use of weapons
when he knowingly:
(1) Sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses or
carries any bludgeon, black-jack, slung-shot, sand-club,
sand-bag, metal knuckles or other knuckle weapon
regardless of its composition, throwing star, or any knife,
commonly referred to as a switchblade knife, which has a
blade that opens automatically by hand pressure applied to
a button, spring or other device in the handle of the
knife, or a ballistic knife, which is a device that propels
a knifelike blade as a projectile by means of a coil
spring, elastic material or compressed gas; or
(2) Carries or possesses with intent to use the same
unlawfully against another, a dagger, dirk, billy,
dangerous knife, razor, stiletto, broken bottle or other
piece of glass, stun gun or taser or any other dangerous or
deadly weapon or instrument of like character; or
(3) Carries on or about his person or in any vehicle, a
tear gas gun projector or bomb or any object containing
noxious liquid gas or substance, other than an object
containing a non-lethal noxious liquid gas or substance
designed solely for personal defense carried by a person 18
years of age or older; or
(4) Carries or possesses in any vehicle or concealed on
or about his person except when on his land or in his own
abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on
the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an
invitee with that person's permission, any pistol,
revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm, except that
this subsection (a) (4) does not apply to or affect
transportation of weapons that meet one of the following
conditions:
(i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or
(ii) are not immediately accessible; or
(iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm
carrying box, shipping box, or other container by a
person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm
Owner's Identification Card; or
(iv) are carried or possessed in accordance with
the Firearm Concealed Carry Act by a person who has
been issued a currently valid license under the Firearm
Concealed Carry Act; or
(5) Sets a spring gun; or
(6) Possesses any device or attachment of any kind
designed, used or intended for use in silencing the report
of any firearm; or
(7) Sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses or
carries:
(i) a machine gun, which shall be defined for the
purposes of this subsection as any weapon, which
shoots, is designed to shoot, or can be readily
restored to shoot, automatically more than one shot
without manually reloading by a single function of the
trigger, including the frame or receiver of any such
weapon, or sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses,
or carries any combination of parts designed or
intended for use in converting any weapon into a
machine gun, or any combination or parts from which a
machine gun can be assembled if such parts are in the
possession or under the control of a person;
(ii) any rifle having one or more barrels less than
16 inches in length or a shotgun having one or more
barrels less than 18 inches in length or any weapon
made from a rifle or shotgun, whether by alteration,
modification, or otherwise, if such a weapon as
modified has an overall length of less than 26 inches;
or
(iii) any bomb, bomb-shell, grenade, bottle or
other container containing an explosive substance of
over one-quarter ounce for like purposes, such as, but
not limited to, black powder bombs and Molotov
cocktails or artillery projectiles; or
(8) Carries or possesses any firearm, stun gun or taser
or other deadly weapon in any place which is licensed to
sell intoxicating beverages, or at any public gathering
held pursuant to a license issued by any governmental body
or any public gathering at which an admission is charged,
excluding a place where a showing, demonstration or lecture
involving the exhibition of unloaded firearms is
conducted.
This subsection (a)(8) does not apply to any auction or
raffle of a firearm held pursuant to a license or permit
issued by a governmental body, nor does it apply to persons
engaged in firearm safety training courses; or
(9) Carries or possesses in a vehicle or on or about
his person any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or
firearm or ballistic knife, when he is hooded, robed or
masked in such manner as to conceal his identity; or
(10) Carries or possesses on or about his person, upon
any public street, alley, or other public lands within the
corporate limits of a city, village or incorporated town,
except when an invitee thereon or therein, for the purpose
of the display of such weapon or the lawful commerce in
weapons, or except when on his land or in his own abode,
legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land
or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee
with that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun
gun or taser or other firearm, except that this subsection
(a) (10) does not apply to or affect transportation of
weapons that meet one of the following conditions:
(i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or
(ii) are not immediately accessible; or
(iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm
carrying box, shipping box, or other container by a
person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm
Owner's Identification Card; or .
(iv) are carried or possessed in accordance with
the Firearm Concealed Carry Act by a person who has
been issued a currently valid license under the Firearm
Concealed Carry Act.
A "stun gun or taser", as used in this paragraph (a)
means (i) any device which is powered by electrical
charging units, such as, batteries, and which fires one or
several barbs attached to a length of wire and which, upon
hitting a human, can send out a current capable of
disrupting the person's nervous system in such a manner as
to render him incapable of normal functioning or (ii) any
device which is powered by electrical charging units, such
as batteries, and which, upon contact with a human or
clothing worn by a human, can send out current capable of
disrupting the person's nervous system in such a manner as
to render him incapable of normal functioning; or
(11) Sells, manufactures or purchases any explosive
bullet. For purposes of this paragraph (a) "explosive
bullet" means the projectile portion of an ammunition
cartridge which contains or carries an explosive charge
which will explode upon contact with the flesh of a human
or an animal. "Cartridge" means a tubular metal case having
a projectile affixed at the front thereof and a cap or
primer at the rear end thereof, with the propellant
contained in such tube between the projectile and the cap;
or
(12) (Blank); or
(13) Carries or possesses on or about his or her person
while in a building occupied by a unit of government, a
billy club, other weapon of like character, or other
instrument of like character intended for use as a weapon.
For the purposes of this Section, "billy club" means a
short stick or club commonly carried by police officers
which is either telescopic or constructed of a solid piece
of wood or other man-made material.
(b) Sentence. A person convicted of a violation of
subsection 24-1(a)(1) through (5), subsection 24-1(a)(10),
subsection 24-1(a)(11), or subsection 24-1(a)(13) commits a
Class A misdemeanor. A person convicted of a violation of
subsection 24-1(a)(8) or 24-1(a)(9) commits a Class 4 felony; a
person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(6) or
24-1(a)(7)(ii) or (iii) commits a Class 3 felony. A person
convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(7)(i) commits a
Class 2 felony and shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment
of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years, unless the
weapon is possessed in the passenger compartment of a motor
vehicle as defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle
Code, or on the person, while the weapon is loaded, in which
case it shall be a Class X felony. A person convicted of a
second or subsequent violation of subsection 24-1(a)(4),
24-1(a)(8), 24-1(a)(9), or 24-1(a)(10) commits a Class 3
felony. The possession of each weapon in violation of this
Section constitutes a single and separate violation.
(c) Violations in specific places.
(1) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(6) or
24-1(a)(7) in any school, regardless of the time of day or
the time of year, in residential property owned, operated
or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public
housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income
development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the real
property comprising any school, regardless of the time of
day or the time of year, on residential property owned,
operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by
a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or
mixed-income development, on the real property comprising
any public park, on the real property comprising any
courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased or contracted
by a school to transport students to or from school or a
school related activity, in any conveyance owned, leased,
or contracted by a public transportation agency, or on any
public way within 1,000 feet of the real property
comprising any school, public park, courthouse, public
transportation facility, or residential property owned,
operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased
by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or
mixed-income development commits a Class 2 felony and shall
be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3
years and not more than 7 years.
(1.5) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(4),
24-1(a)(9), or 24-1(a)(10) in any school, regardless of the
time of day or the time of year, in residential property
owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or
leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered
site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a
courthouse, on the real property comprising any school,
regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on
residential property owned, operated, or managed by a
public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency
as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on
the real property comprising any public park, on the real
property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance
owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport
students to or from school or a school related activity, in
any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a public
transportation agency, or on any public way within 1,000
feet of the real property comprising any school, public
park, courthouse, public transportation facility, or
residential property owned, operated, or managed by a
public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency
as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development
commits a Class 3 felony.
(2) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(1),
24-1(a)(2), or 24-1(a)(3) in any school, regardless of the
time of day or the time of year, in residential property
owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or
leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered
site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a
courthouse, on the real property comprising any school,
regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on
residential property owned, operated or managed by a public
housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part
of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the
real property comprising any public park, on the real
property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance
owned, leased or contracted by a school to transport
students to or from school or a school related activity, in
any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a public
transportation agency, or on any public way within 1,000
feet of the real property comprising any school, public
park, courthouse, public transportation facility, or
residential property owned, operated, or managed by a
public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency
as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development
commits a Class 4 felony. "Courthouse" means any building
that is used by the Circuit, Appellate, or Supreme Court of
this State for the conduct of official business.
(3) Paragraphs (1), (1.5), and (2) of this subsection
(c) shall not apply to law enforcement officers or security
officers of such school, college, or university or to
students carrying or possessing firearms for use in
training courses, parades, hunting, target shooting on
school ranges, or otherwise with the consent of school
authorities and which firearms are transported unloaded
enclosed in a suitable case, box, or transportation
package.
(4) For the purposes of this subsection (c), "school"
means any public or private elementary or secondary school,
community college, college, or university.
(5) For the purposes of this subsection (c), "public
transportation agency" means a public or private agency
that provides for the transportation or conveyance of
persons by means available to the general public, except
for transportation by automobiles not used for conveyance
of the general public as passengers; and "public
transportation facility" means a terminal or other place
where one may obtain public transportation.
(d) The presence in an automobile other than a public
omnibus of any weapon, instrument or substance referred to in
subsection (a)(7) is prima facie evidence that it is in the
possession of, and is being carried by, all persons occupying
such automobile at the time such weapon, instrument or
substance is found, except under the following circumstances:
(i) if such weapon, instrument or instrumentality is found upon
the person of one of the occupants therein; or (ii) if such
weapon, instrument or substance is found in an automobile
operated for hire by a duly licensed driver in the due, lawful
and proper pursuit of his trade, then such presumption shall
not apply to the driver.
(e) Exemptions. Crossbows, Common or Compound bows and
Underwater Spearguns are exempted from the definition of
ballistic knife as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (a)
of this Section.
(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-809, eff. 1-1-09;
95-885, eff. 1-1-09; 96-41, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09;
96-742, eff. 8-25-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)
(720 ILCS 5/24-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-3)
Sec. 24-3. Unlawful sale or delivery of firearms.
(A) A person commits the offense of unlawful sale or
delivery of firearms when he or she knowingly does any of the
following:
(a) Sells or gives any firearm of a size which may be
concealed upon the person to any person under 18 years of
age.
(b) Sells or gives any firearm to a person under 21
years of age who has been convicted of a misdemeanor other
than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent.
(c) Sells or gives any firearm to any narcotic addict.
(d) Sells or gives any firearm to any person who has
been convicted of a felony under the laws of this or any
other jurisdiction.
(e) Sells or gives any firearm to any person who has
been a patient in a mental institution within the past 5
years. In this subsection (e):
"Mental institution" means any hospital,
institution, clinic, evaluation facility, mental
health center, or part thereof, which is used primarily
for the care or treatment of persons with mental
illness.
"Patient in a mental institution" means the person
was admitted, either voluntarily or involuntarily, to
a mental institution for mental health treatment,
unless the treatment was voluntary and solely for an
alcohol abuse disorder and no other secondary
substance abuse disorder or mental illness.
(f) Sells or gives any firearms to any person who is
intellectually disabled.
(g) Delivers any firearm of a size which may be
concealed upon the person, incidental to a sale, without
withholding delivery of such firearm for at least 72 hours
after application for its purchase has been made, or
delivers any rifle, shotgun or other long gun, or a stun
gun or taser, incidental to a sale, without withholding
delivery of such rifle, shotgun or other long gun, or a
stun gun or taser for at least 24 hours after application
for its purchase has been made. However, this paragraph (g)
does not apply to: (1) the sale of a firearm to a law
enforcement officer if the seller of the firearm knows that
the person to whom he or she is selling the firearm is a
law enforcement officer or the sale of a firearm to a
person who desires to purchase a firearm for use in
promoting the public interest incident to his or her
employment as a bank guard, armed truck guard, or other
similar employment; (2) a mail order sale of a firearm from
a federally licensed firearms dealer to a nonresident of
Illinois under which the firearm is mailed to a federally
licensed firearms dealer point outside the boundaries of
Illinois; (3) the sale of a firearm to a nonresident of
Illinois while at a firearm showing or display recognized
by the Illinois Department of State Police; or (4) the sale
of a firearm to a dealer licensed as a federal firearms
dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of
1968 (18 U.S.C. 923); or (5) the transfer or sale of any
rifle, shotgun, or other long gun to a resident registered
competitor or attendee or non-resident registered
competitor or attendee by any dealer licensed as a federal
firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun
Control Act of 1968 at competitive shooting events held at
the World Shooting Complex sanctioned by a national
governing body. For purposes of transfers or sales under
subparagraph (5) of this paragraph (g), the Department of
Natural Resources shall give notice to the Department of
State Police at least 30 calendar days prior to any
competitive shooting events at the World Shooting Complex
sanctioned by a national governing body. The notification
shall be made on a form prescribed by the Department of
State Police. The sanctioning body shall provide a list of
all registered competitors and attendees at least 24 hours
before the events to the Department of State Police. Any
changes to the list of registered competitors and attendees
shall be forwarded to the Department of State Police as
soon as practicable. The Department of State Police must
destroy the list of registered competitors and attendees no
later than 30 days after the date of the event. Nothing in
this paragraph (g) relieves a federally licensed firearm
dealer from the requirements of conducting a NICS
background check through the Illinois Point of Contact
under 18 U.S.C. 922(t). For purposes of this paragraph (g),
"application" means when the buyer and seller reach an
agreement to purchase a firearm. For purposes of this
paragraph (g), "national governing body" means a group of
persons who adopt rules and formulate policy on behalf of a
national firearm sporting organization.
(h) While holding any license as a dealer, importer,
manufacturer or pawnbroker under the federal Gun Control
Act of 1968, manufactures, sells or delivers to any
unlicensed person a handgun having a barrel, slide, frame
or receiver which is a die casting of zinc alloy or any
other nonhomogeneous metal which will melt or deform at a
temperature of less than 800 degrees Fahrenheit. For
purposes of this paragraph, (1) "firearm" is defined as in
the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act; and (2)
"handgun" is defined as a firearm designed to be held and
fired by the use of a single hand, and includes a
combination of parts from which such a firearm can be
assembled.
(i) Sells or gives a firearm of any size to any person
under 18 years of age who does not possess a valid Firearm
Owner's Identification Card.
(j) Sells or gives a firearm while engaged in the
business of selling firearms at wholesale or retail without
being licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section
923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923).
In this paragraph (j):
A person "engaged in the business" means a person who
devotes time, attention, and labor to engaging in the
activity as a regular course of trade or business with the
principal objective of livelihood and profit, but does not
include a person who makes occasional repairs of firearms
or who occasionally fits special barrels, stocks, or
trigger mechanisms to firearms.
"With the principal objective of livelihood and
profit" means that the intent underlying the sale or
disposition of firearms is predominantly one of obtaining
livelihood and pecuniary gain, as opposed to other intents,
such as improving or liquidating a personal firearms
collection; however, proof of profit shall not be required
as to a person who engages in the regular and repetitive
purchase and disposition of firearms for criminal purposes
or terrorism.
(k) Sells or transfers ownership of a firearm to a
person who does not display to the seller or transferor of
the firearm either: (1) a currently valid Firearm Owner's
Identification Card that has previously been issued in the
transferee's name by the Department of State Police under
the provisions of the Firearm Owners Identification Card
Act; or (2) a currently valid license to carry a concealed
firearm that has previously been issued in the transferee's
name by the Department of State Police under the Firearm
Concealed Carry Act. This paragraph (k) does not apply to
the transfer of a firearm to a person who is exempt from
the requirement of possessing a Firearm Owner's
Identification Card under Section 2 of the Firearm Owners
Identification Card Act. For the purposes of this Section,
a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card
means (i) a Firearm Owner's Identification Card that has
not expired or (ii) an approval number issued in accordance
with subsection (a-10) of subsection 3 or Section 3.1 of
the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act shall be proof
that the Firearm Owner's Identification Card was valid.
(1) In addition to the other requirements of this
paragraph (k), all persons who are not federally
licensed firearms dealers must also have complied with
subsection (a-10) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners
Identification Card Act by determining the validity of
a purchaser's Firearm Owner's Identification Card.
(2) All sellers or transferors who have complied
with the requirements of subparagraph (1) of this
paragraph (k) shall not be liable for damages in any
civil action arising from the use or misuse by the
transferee of the firearm transferred, except for
willful or wanton misconduct on the part of the seller
or transferor.
(l) Not being entitled to the possession of a firearm,
delivers the firearm, knowing it to have been stolen or
converted. It may be inferred that a person who possesses a
firearm with knowledge that its serial number has been
removed or altered has knowledge that the firearm is stolen
or converted.
(B) Paragraph (h) of subsection (A) does not include
firearms sold within 6 months after enactment of Public Act
78-355 (approved August 21, 1973, effective October 1, 1973),
nor is any firearm legally owned or possessed by any citizen or
purchased by any citizen within 6 months after the enactment of
Public Act 78-355 subject to confiscation or seizure under the
provisions of that Public Act. Nothing in Public Act 78-355
shall be construed to prohibit the gift or trade of any firearm
if that firearm was legally held or acquired within 6 months
after the enactment of that Public Act.
(C) Sentence.
(1) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery
of firearms in violation of paragraph (c), (e), (f), (g),
or (h) of subsection (A) commits a Class 4 felony.
(2) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery
of firearms in violation of paragraph (b) or (i) of
subsection (A) commits a Class 3 felony.
(3) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery
of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) of subsection (A)
commits a Class 2 felony.
(4) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery
of firearms in violation of paragraph (a), (b), or (i) of
subsection (A) in any school, on the real property
comprising a school, within 1,000 feet of the real property
comprising a school, at a school related activity, or on or
within 1,000 feet of any conveyance owned, leased, or
contracted by a school or school district to transport
students to or from school or a school related activity,
regardless of the time of day or time of year at which the
offense was committed, commits a Class 1 felony. Any person
convicted of a second or subsequent violation of unlawful
sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a),
(b), or (i) of subsection (A) in any school, on the real
property comprising a school, within 1,000 feet of the real
property comprising a school, at a school related activity,
or on or within 1,000 feet of any conveyance owned, leased,
or contracted by a school or school district to transport
students to or from school or a school related activity,
regardless of the time of day or time of year at which the
offense was committed, commits a Class 1 felony for which
the sentence shall be a term of imprisonment of no less
than 5 years and no more than 15 years.
(5) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery
of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) or (i) of
subsection (A) in residential property owned, operated, or
managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public
housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income
development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on
residential property owned, operated, or managed by a
public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency
as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on
the real property comprising any public park, on the real
property comprising any courthouse, or on any public way
within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any
public park, courthouse, or residential property owned,
operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased
by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or
mixed-income development commits a Class 2 felony.
(6) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery
of firearms in violation of paragraph (j) of subsection (A)
commits a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent
violation is a Class 4 felony.
(7) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery
of firearms in violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A)
commits a Class 4 felony, except that a violation of
subparagraph (1) of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) shall
not be punishable as a crime or petty offense. A third or
subsequent conviction for a violation of paragraph (k) of
subsection (A) is a Class 1 felony.
(8) A person 18 years of age or older convicted of
unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of
paragraph (a) or (i) of subsection (A), when the firearm
that was sold or given to another person under 18 years of
age was used in the commission of or attempt to commit a
forcible felony, shall be fined or imprisoned, or both, not
to exceed the maximum provided for the most serious
forcible felony so committed or attempted by the person
under 18 years of age who was sold or given the firearm.
(9) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery
of firearms in violation of paragraph (d) of subsection (A)
commits a Class 3 felony.
(10) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery
of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A)
commits a Class 2 felony if the delivery is of one firearm.
Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of
firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A)
commits a Class 1 felony if the delivery is of not less
than 2 and not more than 5 firearms at the same time or
within a one year period. Any person convicted of unlawful
sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l)
of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or
she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not
less than 6 years and not more than 30 years if the
delivery is of not less than 6 and not more than 10
firearms at the same time or within a 2 year period. Any
person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms
in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a
Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a
term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more
than 40 years if the delivery is of not less than 11 and
not more than 20 firearms at the same time or within a 3
year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or
delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of
subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she
shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less
than 6 years and not more than 50 years if the delivery is
of not less than 21 and not more than 30 firearms at the
same time or within a 4 year period. Any person convicted
of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of
paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony
for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of
imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 60
years if the delivery is of 31 or more firearms at the same
time or within a 5 year period.
(D) For purposes of this Section:
"School" means a public or private elementary or secondary
school, community college, college, or university.
"School related activity" means any sporting, social,
academic, or other activity for which students' attendance or
participation is sponsored, organized, or funded in whole or in
part by a school or school district.
(E) A prosecution for a violation of paragraph (k) of
subsection (A) of this Section may be commenced within 6 years
after the commission of the offense. A prosecution for a
violation of this Section other than paragraph (g) of
subsection (A) of this Section may be commenced within 5 years
after the commission of the offense defined in the particular
paragraph.
(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-347, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813,
eff. 7-13-12; 97-1167, eff. 6-1-13; 98-508, eff. 8-19-13.)
Section 25. The Mental Health and Developmental
Disabilities Confidentiality Act is amended by changing
Section 12 as follows:
(740 ILCS 110/12) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 812)
Sec. 12. (a) If the United States Secret Service or the
Department of State Police requests information from a mental
health or developmental disability facility, as defined in
Section 1-107 and 1-114 of the Mental Health and Developmental
Disabilities Code, relating to a specific recipient and the
facility director determines that disclosure of such
information may be necessary to protect the life of, or to
prevent the infliction of great bodily harm to, a public
official, or a person under the protection of the United States
Secret Service, only the following information may be
disclosed: the recipient's name, address, and age and the date
of any admission to or discharge from a facility; and any
information which would indicate whether or not the recipient
has a history of violence or presents a danger of violence to
the person under protection. Any information so disclosed shall
be used for investigative purposes only and shall not be
publicly disseminated. Any person participating in good faith
in the disclosure of such information in accordance with this
provision shall have immunity from any liability, civil,
criminal or otherwise, if such information is disclosed relying
upon the representation of an officer of the United States
Secret Service or the Department of State Police that a person
is under the protection of the United States Secret Service or
is a public official.
For the purpose of this subsection (a), the term "public
official" means the Governor, Lieutenant Governor, Attorney
General, Secretary of State, State Comptroller, State
Treasurer, member of the General Assembly, member of the United
States Congress, Judge of the United States as defined in 28
U.S.C. 451, Justice of the United States as defined in 28
U.S.C. 451, United States Magistrate Judge as defined in 28
U.S.C. 639, Bankruptcy Judge appointed under 28 U.S.C. 152, or
Supreme, Appellate, Circuit, or Associate Judge of the State of
Illinois. The term shall also include the spouse, child or
children of a public official.
(b) The Department of Human Services (acting as successor
to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental
Disabilities) and all public or private hospitals and mental
health facilities are required, as hereafter described in this
subsection, to furnish the Department of State Police only such
information as may be required for the sole purpose of
determining whether an individual who may be or may have been a
patient is disqualified because of that status from receiving
or retaining a Firearm Owner's Identification Card or falls
within the federal prohibitors under subsection (e), (f), (g),
(r), (s), or (t) of Section 8 of the Firearm Owners
Identification Card Act, or falls within the federal
prohibitors in 18 U.S.C. 922(g) and (n). All physicians,
clinical psychologists, or qualified examiners at public or
private mental health facilities or parts thereof as defined in
this subsection shall, in the form and manner required by the
Department, provide notice directly to the Department of Human
Services, or to his or her employer who shall then report to
the Department, within 24 hours after determining that a person
patient as described in clause (2) of the definition of
"patient" in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification
Card Act poses a clear and present danger to himself, herself,
or others, or within 7 days after a person 14 years or older is
determined to be developmentally disabled by a physician,
clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner as described in
Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. If a
person is a patient as described in clause (1) of the
definition of "patient" in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners
Identification Card Act, this This information shall be
furnished within 24 hours after the physician, clinical
psychologist, or qualified examiner has made a determination,
or within 7 days after admission to a public or private
hospital or mental health facility or the provision of services
to a patient described in clause (1) of the definition of
"patient" in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification
Card Act. Any such information disclosed under this subsection
shall remain privileged and confidential, and shall not be
redisclosed, except as required by subsection (e) of Section
3.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, nor utilized
for any other purpose. The method of requiring the providing of
such information shall guarantee that no information is
released beyond what is necessary for this purpose. In
addition, the information disclosed shall be provided by the
Department within the time period established by Section 24-3
of the Criminal Code of 2012 regarding the delivery of
firearms. The method used shall be sufficient to provide the
necessary information within the prescribed time period, which
may include periodically providing lists to the Department of
Human Services or any public or private hospital or mental
health facility of Firearm Owner's Identification Card
applicants on which the Department or hospital shall indicate
the identities of those individuals who are to its knowledge
disqualified from having a Firearm Owner's Identification Card
for reasons described herein. The Department may provide for a
centralized source of information for the State on this subject
under its jurisdiction. The identity of the person reporting
under this subsection shall not be disclosed to the subject of
the report. For the purposes of this subsection, the physician,
clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner making the
determination and his or her employer shall not be held
criminally, civilly, or professionally liable for making or not
making the notification required under this subsection, except
for willful or wanton misconduct.
Any person, institution, or agency, under this Act,
participating in good faith in the reporting or disclosure of
records and communications otherwise in accordance with this
provision or with rules, regulations or guidelines issued by
the Department shall have immunity from any liability, civil,
criminal or otherwise, that might result by reason of the
action. For the purpose of any proceeding, civil or criminal,
arising out of a report or disclosure in accordance with this
provision, the good faith of any person, institution, or agency
so reporting or disclosing shall be presumed. The full extent
of the immunity provided in this subsection (b) shall apply to
any person, institution or agency that fails to make a report
or disclosure in the good faith belief that the report or
disclosure would violate federal regulations governing the
confidentiality of alcohol and drug abuse patient records
implementing 42 U.S.C. 290dd-3 and 290ee-3.
For purposes of this subsection (b) only, the following
terms shall have the meaning prescribed:
(1) (Blank).
(1.3) "Clear and present danger" has the meaning as
defined in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification
Card Act.
(1.5) "Developmentally disabled" has the meaning as
defined in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification
Card Act.
(2) "Patient" has the meaning as defined in Section 1.1
of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.
(3) "Mental health facility" has the meaning as defined
in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card
Act.
(c) Upon the request of a peace officer who takes a person
into custody and transports such person to a mental health or
developmental disability facility pursuant to Section 3-606 or
4-404 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code
or who transports a person from such facility, a facility
director shall furnish said peace officer the name, address,
age and name of the nearest relative of the person transported
to or from the mental health or developmental disability
facility. In no case shall the facility director disclose to
the peace officer any information relating to the diagnosis,
treatment or evaluation of the person's mental or physical
health.
For the purposes of this subsection (c), the terms "mental
health or developmental disability facility", "peace officer"
and "facility director" shall have the meanings ascribed to
them in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.
(d) Upon the request of a peace officer or prosecuting
authority who is conducting a bona fide investigation of a
criminal offense, or attempting to apprehend a fugitive from
justice, a facility director may disclose whether a person is
present at the facility. Upon request of a peace officer or
prosecuting authority who has a valid forcible felony warrant
issued, a facility director shall disclose: (1) whether the
person who is the subject of the warrant is present at the
facility and (2) the date of that person's discharge or future
discharge from the facility. The requesting peace officer or
prosecuting authority must furnish a case number and the
purpose of the investigation or an outstanding arrest warrant
at the time of the request. Any person, institution, or agency
participating in good faith in disclosing such information in
accordance with this subsection (d) is immune from any
liability, civil, criminal or otherwise, that might result by
reason of the action.
(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)